Can somebody explain why in the formula C1 is 50 % probable and not 66% as P(win) is when the opponent chooses 2 maps of the 3 which is 2/3;
the formula is in the pdf or in
Can somebody explain why in the formula C1 is 50 % probable and not 66% as P(win) is when the opponent chooses 2 maps of the 3 which is 2/3;
the formula is in the pdf or in
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