| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Benq | 3792 |
| 2 | VivaciousAubergine | 3647 |
| 3 | Kevin114514 | 3611 |
| 4 | jiangly | 3583 |
| 5 | strapple | 3515 |
| 6 | tourist | 3470 |
| 7 | Radewoosh | 3415 |
| 8 | Um_nik | 3376 |
| 9 | maroonrk | 3361 |
| 10 | XVIII | 3345 |
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Qingyu | 162 |
| 2 | adamant | 148 |
| 3 | Um_nik | 146 |
| 4 | Dominater069 | 143 |
| 5 | errorgorn | 141 |
| 6 | cry | 138 |
| 7 | Proof_by_QED | 136 |
| 8 | YuukiS | 135 |
| 9 | chromate00 | 134 |
| 10 | soullless | 133 |
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0
When can we get to see the test cases? |
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+8
Isn't your submission O(Nlog^2N). Aren't you basically using a modified sieve with exponentiation at every step? |
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+29
A very naive way to think of it is this: You can calculate all divisors of all numbers from 1 to n using a sieve whose complexity is O(nlogn). Also, in each step, you calculate exactly one divisor of a number. So, there can only be O(nlogn), The sieve can be visualized as: |
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0
I did! 3 penalties + 20 minutes wasted because of that! Would have been in top-500 otherwise :( |
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+6
Thank you. I was one of the coordinators of the event. I am glad you enjoyed it :) The other coordinator is Ankit Mahato. As a part of Techkriti we also organize an Algorithmic Coding Competition, IOPC (International Online Programming Contest). Though this year's is over we would be glad to see you back for both the events next year :)
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0
Can teams take part in todays contest?
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+3
I couldn't access the site in the last 5-6 minutes! Kept on giving me 504! Also, problem B? What was that? The question seemed fine, but the explanation of the test cases was just... weird!
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0
My solution is probably the same as yours. By saving the left most, right most, top most etc...
But, I was just wondering why did you write m >> n (which you have changed now, see Rev 1 or your first comment). |
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Why only if m >> n? This solution works for all n and m. O(m)
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Same question.
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+8
Very nice problem set... Just 20 seconds more and would have submitted E as well. Took me a whole while to realize answer is simply (n - 1) choose (2 * k) * (m - 1) choose (2 * k)
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0
This one word comment seems more powerful than all other put together! VIM!
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VIM! Simply because I never have to use a mouse again :D It has way too many commands and is just way too powerful. I learnt Regular Expressions just so that I could use VIM to at least some of its potential.
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0
Actually, printing and reading input is a major part of the time taken in this question. The calculations and verification is actually very very fast.
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0
Woah! I didn't notice it either x-(
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The website is not able to handle the load :(
Has anyone downloaded the input sets and share them? |
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0
ehm... try running it as sudo ./a
it will prompt you for your password. Does this work? |
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0
Wait, in what cases would we have to add the precomputed areas?
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0
That is what I did.
The area[i] stores the area of the polygon which has vertices from 0...i (area[n-1] has the final area) To find the area of the region from vertices u to v, it is abs(area[v] - area[u]) - area of triangle which has vertices(v, u, 0). The complexity per test case is O(n + q). |
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0
I wouldn't call this simpler! It is definitely shorter though...
I couldn't figure out which part of the analysis actually talked about this solution. |
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+8
It is O(1) as complexity of GCD(a, b) is log(max(a, b)). Here one of them is 100 and that will be >= the percentage, which is a constant.
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+5
Who goes to classes anyway in college? :D
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On
mkagenius →
Find the time complexity in O-notation for the following recurrence relations using Master method., 15 years ago
+8
I am not sure what you are asking, but if you want the complexity then I believe it is O(log(n) * n * log(n))
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0
I understand how people got GCC... but that is not how a quiz connect works (at least not here! :P )
The answer is The Beatles... The first image is of a revolver, the second is Rubber or Rubber Soul, and the third is pepper for Sgt. Peppers Lonely heart club band... Perhaps I misjudged the problem and it was tough. My bad. But I hope you get the idea and will think in similar directions in the next question. |
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0
I am afraid no... but how did you get it? Perhaps there might be another connect which I did not think about.
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I am sorry if the pictures offended you. But the intention was not to show something obscene. I am pretty sure the answer is not at all obscene nor is the connect. And the comment above was probably just a joke.
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0
Lol! But unfortunately no!
I'll give you an example... if there was a picture of Football, Barclay Bank, England... then the answer would be EPL. |
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+8
Could we not have a separate rating for the Unknown Language Rounds? It would be great and it would invite more serious participants.
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-20
Use,
#include <math> instead of #include<math.h> |
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0
"being very hard to spell"
LOL! Definitely agree about that! |
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0
I feel that contests on codeforces are based a lot on string manipulations which becomes a lot easier for advanced coders who are used to STL data types. At least Div. 2 problems should not have so many questions like that.
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0
There were more number of people participating in the other rounds. Rank 100 in 1000 people will get you a better rating change than Rank 100 in 200 people.
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That is because non-rated participants are given a default rating of 1400 or 1500 (I am not sure). And the rating increases more if you are above your "expected" rank.
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Violet doesn't look good at all in the rating graph.
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0
How about using a set? Store all the numbers of the first array in a set. A set only requires O(log(n)) time for instertion and search. And it also requires O(n) memory AFAIK.
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+8
It is wrong to remove the points gotten by hacking the first problem. Many people didn't attempt other problems just to hack.
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0
Same with me!
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+50
This contest should be unrated. I got 13 hacks just because of the wrong problem statement of A!
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0
Great round! Really enjoyed it a lot. Though I left it mid-way, it was a lot of fun. Hope to see more such innovative rounds for the future.
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0
The concept is very simple...
Assuming that there no. of boys (b) < no. of girls (g), then, we have b + 1 places where we can fills groups of girls. To minimize the number of girls in a line, we shall try to distribute them equally, i.e., g / (b + 1) girls everywhere. If g % (b + 1) != 0, then we shall distribute g % (b + 1) girls in those many places and the answer then becomes g / (b + 1) + 1. Trivial cases, g = b, answer is 1. g or b = 0, answer is b or g respectively. |
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Thanks! I forgot to add case 2. I edited the post.
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0
You can see the test cases for every question now. Go to your submissions and click on the submission code. Scroll down and you can see the test cases.
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+8
Why are there so many judgement fails?
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