Codeforces Round 660 (Div. 2) |
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Finished |
Captain Fint is involved in another treasure hunt, but have found only one strange problem. The problem may be connected to the treasure's location or may not. That's why captain Flint decided to leave the solving the problem to his crew and offered an absurdly high reward: one day off. The problem itself sounds like this...
There are two arrays a and b of length n. Initially, an ans is equal to 0 and the following operation is defined:
What is the maximum ans you can get by performing the operation on each i (1≤i≤n) exactly once?
Uncle Bogdan is eager to get the reward, so he is asking your help to find the optimal order of positions to perform the operation on them.
The first line contains the integer n (1≤n≤2⋅105) — the length of arrays a and b.
The second line contains n integers a1,a2,…,an (−106≤ai≤106).
The third line contains n integers b1,b2,…,bn (1≤bi≤n or bi=−1).
Additional constraint: it's guaranteed that for any i (1≤i≤n) the sequence bi,bbi,bbbi,… is not cyclic, in other words it will always end with −1.
In the first line, print the maximum ans you can get.
In the second line, print the order of operations: n different integers p1,p2,…,pn (1≤pi≤n). The pi is the position which should be chosen at the i-th step. If there are multiple orders, print any of them.
3 1 2 3 2 3 -1
10 1 2 3
2 -1 100 2 -1
99 2 1
10 -10 -1 2 2 5 -2 -3 -4 2 -6 -1 -1 2 2 -1 5 5 7 7 9
-9 3 5 6 1 9 4 10 7 8 2
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