Codeforces Round 668 (Div. 2) |
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You're given an array $$$a$$$ of $$$n$$$ integers, such that $$$a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n = 0$$$.
In one operation, you can choose two different indices $$$i$$$ and $$$j$$$ ($$$1 \le i, j \le n$$$), decrement $$$a_i$$$ by one and increment $$$a_j$$$ by one. If $$$i < j$$$ this operation is free, otherwise it costs one coin.
How many coins do you have to spend in order to make all elements equal to $$$0$$$?
Each test contains multiple test cases. The first line contains the number of test cases $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 5000$$$). Description of the test cases follows.
The first line of each test case contains an integer $$$n$$$ ($$$1 \le n \le 10^5$$$) — the number of elements.
The next line contains $$$n$$$ integers $$$a_1, \ldots, a_n$$$ ($$$-10^9 \le a_i \le 10^9$$$). It is given that $$$\sum_{i=1}^n a_i = 0$$$.
It is guaranteed that the sum of $$$n$$$ over all test cases does not exceed $$$10^5$$$.
For each test case, print the minimum number of coins we have to spend in order to make all elements equal to $$$0$$$.
7 4 -3 5 -3 1 2 1 -1 4 -3 2 -3 4 4 -1 1 1 -1 7 -5 7 -6 -4 17 -13 4 6 -1000000000 -1000000000 -1000000000 1000000000 1000000000 1000000000 1 0
3 0 4 1 8 3000000000 0
Possible strategy for the first test case:
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