Can somebody explain why in the formula C1 is 50 % probable and not 66% as P(win) is when the opponent chooses 2 maps of the 3 which is 2/3;
the formula is in the pdf or in
Can somebody explain why in the formula C1 is 50 % probable and not 66% as P(win) is when the opponent chooses 2 maps of the 3 which is 2/3;
the formula is in the pdf or in
| Rev. | Lang. | By | When | Δ | Comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| en2 |
|
rohitjazz199955 | 2023-08-10 14:57:55 | 5 | ||
| en1 |
|
rohitjazz199955 | 2023-08-10 14:57:06 | 227 | Initial revision (published) |
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