For this problem: https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1981/problem/D, in the case where $$$m$$$ is even, why is it true that the longest path with unique edges (but not necessarily unique vertices) happens when you remove $$$\frac{m}{2} - 1$$$ edges? I get that there is then a Eulerian path in the graph because it has two nodes with an odd degree, but how can we be sure that there isn't a path with more unique edges in the original graph without any removals?








