bitset < n > b1, b2;
b1 |= b2;
Is the complexity of above code O(n)? Or it works in O(1).
# | User | Rating |
---|---|---|
1 | tourist | 3993 |
2 | jiangly | 3743 |
3 | orzdevinwang | 3707 |
4 | Radewoosh | 3627 |
5 | jqdai0815 | 3620 |
6 | Benq | 3564 |
7 | Kevin114514 | 3443 |
8 | ksun48 | 3434 |
9 | Rewinding | 3397 |
10 | Um_nik | 3396 |
# | User | Contrib. |
---|---|---|
1 | cry | 167 |
2 | Um_nik | 163 |
3 | maomao90 | 162 |
3 | atcoder_official | 162 |
5 | adamant | 159 |
6 | -is-this-fft- | 158 |
7 | awoo | 156 |
8 | TheScrasse | 154 |
9 | Dominater069 | 153 |
10 | nor | 152 |
bitset < n > b1, b2;
b1 |= b2;
Is the complexity of above code O(n)? Or it works in O(1).
Name |
---|
It works in approximately O(n / 64), but your n is a constant, so it works in O(1) :D
Thanks. But clear it little bit. if n = 1e3;
then complexity O ( 1000/64 ) Or O ( 1 )
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation O(1000/64)=O(1)...
Ah! Thanks a lot sir.It's now clear.