mtnshh's blog

By mtnshh, history, 5 years ago, In English

The Programming Club, IIT Indore is proud to present our flagship event, Divide By Zero! The contest will take place on Apr/11/2021 17:35 (Moscow time). This round will be rated for all participants with a rating lower than 2100.

Divide By Zero 2021

Thanks to the following people for making the round possible:

There are 6 problems, and 2 hours to solve them. The points distribution will be updated later.

Update: The scoring distribution is 500 -- 1250 -- 1500 -- 2000 -- 2750 -- 3000.

Update: Editorial is up.

PRIZES: Twenty Codeforces T-shirt will be given to:

  • Top 10 Indian Participants
  • Random 10 from top 100 (rank 11-100) Indian participants

Hope you guys enjoy the contest! See you on the leaderboard!

Update: Here is the list of winners who won T-shirts. We will contact you guys soon. Congrats!

Top 10 Indian Participants

Random 10 from top 100 (rank 11-100) Indian participants

We have uploaded the link to the code for generating random numbers and ranklist here.

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5 years ago, hide # |
 
Vote: I like it +14 Vote: I do not like it

Indian round ,Cool,,, Hopefully I will be gray this round :)

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    Vote: I like it +42 Vote: I do not like it

    It's not about hope, You'll be gray if you participate.

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      It was joke comment.

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      5 years ago, hide # ^ |
      Rev. 2  
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      Yess bro....Thanx for motivating me,,,,I will participate this tym,,,,I tried many time but I am not able to solve even one problem :)

      EDIT:

      Spoiler

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        5 years ago, hide # ^ |
         
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        To be honest, I wasn't motivating, wether you solve all of the problems or none you will be newbie after your first contest.

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          5 years ago, hide # ^ |
           
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          This just got me to think, what's the maximum delta one could achieve? Like, say a new account finishes 1st in a combined round (like the global round). She will gain 500+(actual delta). Where actual delta might even be 500-600s considering it's a combined Div1+2+3 round. That's quite close to pupil, right?

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            5 years ago, hide # ^ |
             
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            Well, first of all it depends on the contest, as you mentioned global round is rated for the 3 divisions and it's nearly impossible that an unrated account ranks the first place. So second and third divisions are left(since an unrated account can't participate in a first division contest), and I've seen unrated accounts reaching the first place in a second division contest and gained at most 900 delta.

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              5 years ago, hide # ^ |
              Rev. 2  
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              The person said max delta so it doesn't matter if its almost impossible for an unrated account to win a contest, plus you are also forgetting alt accounts.

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            5 years ago, hide # ^ |
             
            Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

            An unrated account starts from 1400, the maximum is gotten from winning a contest. Also notice that the more the people in a contest, the higher the rating for the people at the top also same if the opponents are of higher rating, so the best case is winning div 1 but its unrated for a 1400, so we have to stick to global rounds and div 2s . You can use CF visualizer to check for the contests with the highest number of people in global and div 2 and 3.

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            5 years ago, hide # ^ |
            Rev. 3  
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            JrNTR

            EDIT: Just wanna say he got 1000 in first round (I guess maximum possible)

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    Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

    Indian round ,Cool,,, Hopefully I won't be green this round :)

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why indian guy ?

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Vote: I like it +82 Vote: I do not like it

i think its time to change the country part in the setting to india for this round :dicaprio:

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    5 years ago, hide # ^ |
     
    Vote: I like it +62 Vote: I do not like it

    Maybe time for getting a Shipping address in India too, and also ID proof.

    PS.: Currently, shipping t-shirts would be tough in India too, shipping worldwide is almost impossible.

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Vote: I like it -41 Vote: I do not like it

How is blue coder setting problems? I think rules were changed this year, you need to be at least 2100.

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Rev. 2  
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As a contributor, I hope my contributions will become positive after this contest XD.

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    5 years ago, hide # ^ |
     
    Vote: I like it +27 Vote: I do not like it

    As an advisor; Try rewriting; as a contributor, in the beginning, that will surely stonk your contribution.

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Vote: I like it -79 Vote: I do not like it

One of my little dreams is to see my contributions positive !! Certainly anyone no likes negative contributions, so don't be harsh with me and help me achieve this little dream ..

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    Vote: I like it +28 Vote: I do not like it

    I have noticed you comment in almost each blog Maybe you should try to control your urge as it seems too irritating for others.

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      5 years ago, hide # ^ |
       
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      Thanks for your kind words, which caused more negative votes.. After this comment, I am no longer interested in my Contribution. I assure that you will not upset about see my comments anymore :)

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    You got my upvote ;) good luck becoming positive

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Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

Indian round cool. Expecting to do good and atleast come closer to green :)

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All the best everyone .... Jai Hind

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Vote: I like it +35 Vote: I do not like it

Many indian contest recently. You guys are motivated.

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Vote: I like it -108 Vote: I do not like it

Hi Sir, I am not able to attend these contests which startsat 8:05 PM. So, Please Change the timing to Sunday Morning 10:00AM. So, Please consider my request. Thank you Sir

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Rev. 2  
Vote: I like it +33 Vote: I do not like it

On April 6th, a contest was held in Codechef which was prepared by IIT Varanasi. After competing in it I felt it's some what like a classical math question paper than a programming contest. So, is it Déjà vu ?

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Vote: I like it +11 Vote: I do not like it

Indian round, cool

insert nationalistic comments

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Vote: I like it -33 Vote: I do not like it

China>India

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good to see India here.

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I wish this contest have interesting problems and strong pretests.

Wish you all luck and rating increasing)))

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Auto comment: topic has been updated by mtnshh (previous revision, new revision, compare).

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1250 for a B problem,The B is going to be some mind-fuck problem IMO.

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Vote: I like it -19 Vote: I do not like it

I have a feeling that this contest is going to be terrible.

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I think it's cool than chinese round,because chinese round is too hard,although it's my country...

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hope I remain expert after this contest :)

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Is it rated?

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wake the firck up samurai

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Vote: I like it -44 Vote: I do not like it

MikeMirzayanov it's kind reuqest. please no codeforcoes round during CSK matches. As you know this season dhoni last season. I want to enjoy both codeforces and msd. Please atleast change timings of CSK matches

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Vote: I like it +8 Vote: I do not like it

The score distribution is wrong, lol

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Why is my nlogn solution giving TLE for B? 112705441

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    5 years ago, hide # ^ |
    Rev. 2  
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    You are initializing an array of size 2,00,001 in each testcase. Maybe that's the reason?

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Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

can anyone plz tell me why D wrong on pretest 3??

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Vote: I like it +1 Vote: I do not like it

Can someone explain me the approach of C?

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    I precomputed number of digits for 0 to 9 until 2e + 50 and then solved eatch testcase in log10(n) by simply adding values from the array.

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    Yes, let me try. I passed pretests of this problem after getting a TLE on the 2nd test.

    Let $$$c[n][i]$$$ be the number of "i" $$$0\leq i\leq 9$$$ after $$$n$$$ operations. You build the relation between $$$c[n][i]$$$ and $$$c[n-1][i]$$$; which is a 10x10 matrix A; and $$$c[n][i]$$$ can be calculated via $$$c[0][i]$$$ and $$$A^n$$$.

    So the goal is to calculate 2*10^5 matrices $$$A^k$$$ given the first matrix $$$A$$$(which is a sparse matrix).Since A is sparse, after calculating $$$A^{n-1}$$$, you can calculate $$$A^{n}$$$ in O(100) instead of O(1000). So the complexity to calculate all matrices is O(2*10^7); and I passed pretests in 888 ms.

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    I have just debugged my code :( But I think it will be AC. EDIT: It got AC: 112711140

    We can calculate answer independently for every digit, so we can use precalculation.

    Precalculate all the answers (200000) for 9. It will take about of 2*10^6 operations

    Then, in every test case count how many times every digit is present in n. I have used cnt array for that.

    Substract every number from 1..9 from 9 and check if it's less than m. If it is, just add calc[m — (10 — i)] * cnt[i] to the answer. Else, simply add cnt[i] to the answer.

    Time Complexity: amortized O(1) per every test case.

    Code:

    Code
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    https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112705430

    I am getting TLE On Pretest 3? What is wrong with my submission?

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      5 years ago, hide # ^ |
       
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      try to add ios::sync_with_stdio(false); also add #pragma GCC optimize("Ofast") and #pragma GCC target("avx,avx2,fma")

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Vote: I like it +29 Vote: I do not like it

ModuloForces

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Vote: I like it +4 Vote: I do not like it

How to solve D?

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Can anyone explain why I am getting Runtime error on pretest 1 for problem C? Its working fine on my local machine! https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112707395

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    your code has "index out of bound" on line 51

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      How did you check that? My local runtime env doesn't complain..

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        Add -fsanitize=undefined to your compiler's flag. But even without any flag I still got segmentation fault.

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          5 years ago, hide # ^ |
           
          Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

          Btw, thanks it was indeed the mistake. I reckon, you deleted your comment of -Wall, but that was some good info for me again, so thanks for that. In my case -fsanitize=undefined does give me runtime error now. Thanks a bunch! :)

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Vote: I like it +5 Vote: I do not like it

so hard :(

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For problem A, I noticed someone's solution only printed "-1" if n>=k

So I tried to hack it with a test case of n=3, k=1

But the solution was in python and I forgot integer division works differently in python :(

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5 years ago, hide # |
 
Vote: I like it +3 Vote: I do not like it

This contest is hard and required to know a lot of Math knowledge, just in my opinion. It is hard for everyone who has no experience. Bye bye Blue. I am back to Cyan soon.

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    Vote: I like it +9 Vote: I do not like it

    It's harder than usual but not because of the math knowledge imo.

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    Rev. 2  
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    I agree that it needed more math knowledge than usual, but mostly math that occurs pretty commonly in competitive coding, not anything completely out of the blue.

    • A — Adhoc, maybe a bit mathy

    • B — Required some basic combinatrics, so fair enough its pretty heavy math for a B.

    • C — Pretty standard dp, no math involved

    • D — First observation is somewhat math intensive for a D (gcd = min means all elements are multiple of the min), but the rest of the problem requires no other math, just intuition of why Kruskal's algo constructs an optimal MST.

    • E — Pure math, all non-combinatorial observations can be made using just the samples. Then its just standard combinatorial ideas that most 18-1900+ rated participants should have likely come across.

    • F — didn't solve, no comments.

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    For B. The observation is that a[1] = a[n] = minimum value of the array. Also, for every i, a[i] & a[1] = a[1].

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For some reason, everyone's problem A sols were hacked but its been reverted

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Problems were hella good imo, especially D

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how to solve b

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    The condition in the problem is equivalent to finding the number of permutations of Indices of the array's elements so that ap1 and apn are bitwise and operation of all of the elements in array a. So let cnt be the number of occurrences of (a1 & a2 .. & an) in array a, if cnt is less than 2 then there is no such permutation and the answer is 0, otherwise the answer is cnt * (cnt — 1) * (n — 2)!.

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    Rev. 4  
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    For intuition, consider n = 2. This has a valid permutation when both elements are identical.

    Now consider n > 2. What if the first and last elements in the permutation are different? Then, this is not a valid permutation since you can always make a 1-element group which has just the larger endpoint, and a (n-1) element group with all the other elements. The AND of the group with the smaller endpoint is strictly smaller so there's no solution.

    Now we know the end points have to be the same. What about the middle elements? Assume there's an element in the middle that has a 0 in a bit where the endpoint has a 1. Then, we can always make a (n-1) element group that will have an AND smaller than the other endpoint. So, every element a_i in the middle must equal the endpoint when ANDed with the endpoint, i.e. satisfy (a_i AND a_0) = a_0. This also implies the endpoints must be the smallest values in the array.

    So the answer is (count_of_smallest_element nCr 2) * ((n — 2)!), assuming there's at least 2 of the smallest element and all values in the array equal the smallest value when ANDed with it.

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If only I never knew matrix expo, would have I not made three TLE attempts at C, coded the intended dp solution and saved the contest. Unlucky day, though I had fun nevertheless. Good contest.

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Missed D just by a minute :(

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I really need to know why my D failed, sumission, else my brain might explode. Please.

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    I have the same code... also very curious :) submissions

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    Try this -
    1
    12
    12
    2 4 10 16 2 6 3 21 30 17 20 16
    Answer — 55

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    Let's say you have a testcase like this:

    1
    3 1000
    2 6 3
    

    Your algorithm connects 2 to 6, then doesn't connect 6 to 3. This can be fixed simply by using DSU instead of your vis[] array.

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    I made the same mistake and realized it after contest. Think of the following p=10 2 4 6 3

    here 2 will connect 4 and 6 and 3 will be connected to(2,4,6) by p=10 in your case but the better way will be to connect 3 to (2,4,6) by the edge of weight 3.

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    Yeah, there's a catch out there! Notice that every time you're trying to connect your current index to some node on the left or right, you're checking if the left or right has already been considered or not! Now, consider the case like array [2,6,3]. Your algorithm will start from the first node and mark both 2 and 6 as connected So when you try to connect 3 to 6 (as 3 is the gcd of [3,6]), your algorithm denies saying that 6 is already visited! Now you can observe that the accepted codes have incorporated a slight change that allowed every node to be considered by potential values both on the left and right. An easy way out is always the DSU method, and when you wanna avoid that, you need to be careful about the components! So yeah one possible input is:
    1
    3 100
    2 6 3

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I just don't get it, why my solution of C fails with TL. Looks like some very dumb mistake, which I don't see.

    int t;
    cin >> t;
    while (t--) {
        int n, m;
        cin >> n >> m;
        long long ans2 = 0;
        while (n > 0) {
            ans2 += cache2[m][n % 10];
            n /= 10;
        }
        cout << ans2 % mod << endl;
    }

This is the main part. The rest of the code is precomputation that doesn't depend on inputs and takes just 124ms.

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https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112698905

This is my solution for Problem C. According to me, its Time Complexity is O (10 * m) which is 2 * 10 ^ 6, which is very well for 1 second, I believe. It is giving TLE verdict on pretest 3.

What can be the possible reason behind this ?

Thank you !

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Vote: I like it +38 Vote: I do not like it

Could somebody tell me how to do E and F :<? Thanks <3

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    Rev. 3  
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    For E, we want to reach $$$\frac{sum}{n}$$$ as the value of all elements. Lets call this the $$$\textbf{good}$$$ value of the array, all elements smaller than it as $$$\textbf{low}$$$ elements and all elements larger than it $$$\textbf{high}$$$ elements.

    Clearly a high element can never be made less than good, as it can never be used later as a sink (due to step 4), meaning we can never make it good. Same for low elements and greater than x. For the same reason, good elements can never be used in an operation.

    Now lets notice that if there exists any subsequence of the form $$$\textbf{low high low high}$$$ or $$$\textbf{low high high low}$$$ or $$$\textbf{high low low high}$$$, we can get different end costs by mapping the lows to different highs. So if there is more than 1 low and more than 1 high, we need them to all be separate, that is all lows before highs or vice versa.

    So we just want to arbitrarily choose where to place the $$$\textbf{good}$$$ elements in the array, multiply that by the number of ways of individually permuting $$$\textbf{low}$$$ and $$$\textbf{high}$$$ respectively. (and that by 2 if the array actually has $$$\textbf{low}$$$ and $$$\textbf{high}$$$ elements for the other direction)

    Ways of choosing places of good elements is clearly just $$$n \choose cnt_{good}$$$. Ways of placing low and high can be found is just multinomial theorem.

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    In E array is balanced if sum is divisible by n and there is no subarray [x, y, x, y] where x is less than sum / n and y is greater than sum / n. You can calculate number of combinations with multinomial coefficient.

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    Wow now that I realized I misread the problem statements. I thought i can't be source anymore :<. Wonder how many people like me and can't solve E :<?

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      Rev. 4  
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      I did as well for 20 mins and asked a clarification for the sake of my sanity after seeing it was the other way around. That part is really unnatural, like you'd expect it to say $$$i$$$ and $$$j$$$ can't be used again as source and sink respectively but it says the opposite. Once you realize the reason for the condition its obvious which it is, but till then its something that's really easy to miss and should have been bolded.

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My Submission for C got TLE on pretest 3. Afterwards, including fast I/O and changing for(auto x:s) to for(auto &x:s) ,it got passed. How?

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I had resubmitted my same correct solutions of first two questions later but my earlier correct solutions were skipped in system testing and my rank got changed .What can I do now?

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problem A: here take some cheesy math! problem B: here take some more math! problem C: hold on! I got some more math!

honestly speaking, Problem set sucked! you know math you solve it easily, you suck at math you get rammed!

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    >see numbers
    >"MATHFORCES!!!"

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    None of the problems were related to math excluding B, besides that they include numbers and digits... C was DP, B had an observation, counting permutations was an easier part and A was just a constructive.

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    I thought it was quite a well balanced round in terms of topic variety.

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Could someone please provide me counter case for my submission of problem D .Test case 3 is very long.

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The problem C and D are wonderful! Really nice round.I love it.

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got the idea of solving C when there was only a few minutes left. tried my best to implement it but just couldn't finish in time :'(

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https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112708303 Here is my solution for question c.. which is giving TLE.. but I suppose it's time complexity is O(m*10+t*10) in the worst case.. please explain

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.

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    What about the submission links and their usernames? Copy pasting the code doesen't help much.

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https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112681391

Can someone please explain why I am getting TLE on this solution of C? I think the time complexity is O(m+t*log(n)) which should run well within 1 second?

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Incredible contest:)a contest with decent level gradient in the questions.

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Here I see a lot of comments related to problem C. Most have implemented using a 2d array of size [2e5]*[10].

  • I would like to share that it is possible to solve the question by 1d array of size [2e5] only.
  • No need to preprocess for all digits from 0-9.
  • You can preprocess all answers for zero, and then the answer for digit 'd' would be simply dp[m + d].

But, here you need to note that instead of precomputing till 2e5, you will have to precompute till at least 2e5+9.

You can check my submission here.

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C is nice!!

Those who are unable to do it let me explain

lets think in this way if the number is this 023109

so if we know that after m operation what is the length if we start from "9" so if we know that after m operation what is the length if we start from "2"

so we just have to add cnt(0,m) + cnt(2,m) ..... cnt(9,m)

where cnt(x,y) denotes what is the length after y operation if we start from x

we can precompute ans for 0 to 9 for each m this wont take O(m*10*10) time complexity which satisfies our time limit

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I am extremely disappointed with test cases of problem C of this round. I wrote a perfectly correct algo for the problem and was constantly getting TLE in testcase 3 of the problem. After the contest ended i just changed cin/cout by scanf/printf and boooom, it passed all test cases. You should avoid such test cases which show TLE just due to the way of taking I/O.

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Can anybody help me to find why my solution is wrong for problem B? Thanks in advance. https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112687504

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why is my solution to B giving wrong answer? please tell. 112718984

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waiting for editorial .....

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Does anyone have an idea why is this (https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112721127) nlognlogn solution too slow?

EDIT: nvm I know where I made a mistake

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Thanks for your effort!

Problems B, D and E are beautiful and so good in my opinion.

Problem C is just rude because of its TL, in my opinion. It's just about pre-calculation. Testcases are queries, in fact. Matrix exponentiation solution with O(1e3 * log(m) * testcases) should pass, because it is not a simulation solution anymore. Even matrix solution with O(1e3 * 2e5) pre-calculations didn't pass. Why so tight TL?

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Rev. 3  
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I saw lots of solutions for problem C with precalculating length after m operations separately for different digits. But notice that after applying 1 operation to 1 we get 2, then 3, ..., 9. This means that for example applying m operations to 7 is the same as applying m + 7 operations to 0. So, we can precalc this values for 0 only.

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My submition is still waiting for recounting(((

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Does somebody know why identical submission show different results?

Submission 1: https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112726786

Submission 2: https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112726577

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Memorable contest for me. I became an expert:)

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I got this message after the contest:

Attention!

Your solution 112682833 for the problem 1513C significantly coincides with solutions IloveUless3/112679357, jamil314/112682833. Such a coincidence is a clear rules violation. Note that unintentional leakage is also a violation. For example, do not use ideone.com with the default settings (public access to your code). If you have conclusive evidence that a coincidence has occurred due to the use of a common source published before the competition, write a comment to post about the round with all the details. More information can be found at http://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/8790. Such violation of the rules may be the reason for blocking your account or other penalties. In case of repeated violations, your account may be blocked.

This is my submission : https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112682833 This is the other submission : https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1513/submission/112679357 I don't see how that is not a coincidence! And I already got another warning in another contest for compiling in ideone (which, at that time, i did not know was a violation of rules)

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Who experienced rollback rating for this contest? I am unrated this contest and come back to Blue? Some thing went wrong???

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Can you guys please announce the selected random 10 contestants for a t-shirt from 100?