The array $$$a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_m$$$ of integers is called odd if it has an odd number of inversions, and even otherwise. Recall that an inversion is a pair $$$(i, j)$$$ with $$$1 \le i \lt j \le m$$$ such that $$$a_i \gt a_j$$$. For example, in the array $$$[2, 4, 1, 3]$$$, there are $$$3$$$ inversions: $$$(1, 3), (2, 3), (2, 4)$$$ (since $$$a_1 \gt a_3, a_2 \gt a_3, a_2 \gt a_4$$$), so it is odd.
Given $$$n, k$$$, determine if there exists a permutation of integers from $$$1$$$ to $$$n$$$, which has exactly $$$k$$$ odd subarrays.
An array $$$b$$$ is a subarray of an array $$$c$$$ if $$$b$$$ can be obtained from $$$c$$$ by the deletion of several (possibly, zero or all) elements from the beginning and several (possibly, zero or all) elements from the end.
The first line contains a single integer $$$t$$$ ($$$1 \le t \le 10^4$$$) — the number of test cases. The description of the test cases follows.
The only line of each test case contains two integers $$$n, k$$$ ($$$1 \le n \le 1000, 0 \le k \le \frac{n(n-1)}{2})$$$.
It's guaranteed that the sum of $$$n^2$$$ over all test cases doesn't exceed $$$4\cdot 10^6$$$.
For every test case, if there is no such permutation, output NO.
Otherwise, output YES. In the next line, output $$$n$$$ integers $$$p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_n$$$ ($$$1 \le p_i \le n$$$, all $$$p_i$$$ are distinct) — the elements of your permutation.
41 03 34 16 15
YES 1 YES 3 2 1 YES 1 3 4 2 NO
In the first test case, the permutation is $$$(1)$$$; all its subarrays are even.
In the second test case, the permutation is $$$(3, 2, 1)$$$. It has $$$3$$$ odd subarrays: $$$[3, 2], [2, 1]$$$ with $$$1$$$ inversion each, and $$$[3, 2, 1]$$$ with $$$3$$$ inversions.
In the third test case, the permutation is $$$(1, 3, 4, 2)$$$. It has exactly $$$1$$$ odd subarrays: $$$[4, 2]$$$ with $$$1$$$ inversion.
It can be shown that no such permutation exists for the fourth test case.
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