Recently, while working on some combinatorics, I stumbled upon an interesting identity. I haven't seen it mentioned before, so I decided to share it here (with the hope that someone will find it fascinating).
The identity
holds for $$$n, m \geq 1$$$.
We may apply it for specific $$$(n,m)$$$ and get interesting results. For example, $$$\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k\binom{n}{k}(2^{n-k}-1)=1$$$ holds because we use the original identity for $$$m=1$$$.
I encourage everyone to try to prove it by themselves before reading my proof.
If you have other proofs of this identity, I would gladly read about them in the comments.
are we actually gonne get this in your next div 3 ...
I'm gonna put this as the last problem
didn't you just switch out $$$n$$$ with $$$m$$$?
yes, but it isn't obvious (at least for me) that switching them out do not change the value of that sum.
I am probably not getting something here, but isn't that kinda the same thing as using $$$j$$$ in a for loop instead of $$$i$$$?
$$$n$$$ may differ from $$$m$$$ and the summation is over $$$k$$$.
Oh ok, I get it now. That is weird how they are equal.
why do we think the same way lol
gray(t) minds think alike
Nice. It is discussed here.
The specific result is just the binomial expansion of (2-1)^n + (1-1)^n = 1.
My proof for the general identity
provide proof for sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k * (n choose k) * (2n — k — 1)^m = sum_{k=0}^m (-1)^k * (m choose k) * (2m — k — 1)^n
It's obvious interchanging n and m doesnt matter. easy pz
My proof