2217A - The Equalizer
Idea: shakr
Problem Setting: AS23, shakr
What if Shaunak never uses the special move?
If Shaunak uses the special move, is using it on the first turn any different from using it later?
The above two cases are independent, and give you two conditions for Shaunak to win. What are they?
In a game without special moves, every turn reduces the total sum of the array, $$$\sum a_i$$$, by exactly $$$1$$$. Thus, the game lasts exactly $$$\sum a_i$$$ turns. The first player (Shaunak) wins if $$$\sum a_i$$$ is odd, and the second player (Yash) wins if $$$\sum a_i$$$ is even.
- If $$$\sum a_i$$$ is odd: Shaunak plays normally and wins. He doesn't need the special move.
- If $$$\sum a_i$$$ is even: Shaunak is guaranteed to lose normally, so he must use his special move. Using it on his first turn sets the new array sum to $$$n \cdot k$$$. Now, Yash is forced to play first in a standard game. Following the parity logic, Yash loses (and Shaunak wins) if $$$n \cdot k$$$ is even.
Therefore, Shaunak wins if $$$\sum a_i$$$ is odd or if $$$n \cdot k$$$ is even. Otherwise, Yash wins.
#include <iostream>
int main()
{
int t = 1;
std::cin >> t;
while (t--) {
int n, k;
std::cin >> n >> k;
bool ans = ((n * k) % 2 == 0); // Either n*k is even
int tot = 0;
while (n--) {
int x;
std::cin >> x;
tot += x;
}
ans |= tot & 1; // Or sum(a) is odd
std::cout << (ans ? "YES" : "NO") << std::endl;
}
return 0;
}
t = int(input())
for _ in range(t):
n, k = map(int, input().split())
arr = list(map(int, input().split()))
tot = sum(arr)
ans = (tot % 2 == 1) or ((n * k) % 2 == 0)
print("YES" if ans else "NO")
2217B - Flip the Bit (Easy Version)
Idea: SilverTongue1729
Problem Setting: penguinnoob, sumit_kk10, Prakul_Agrawal
Think of the array in terms of segments instead of individual elements. What really matters is where the value changes. Define a boundary as a position where adjacent elements differ. How does a flip operation affect boundaries?
A valid operation must include the special index. So one endpoint of the flip lies to the left of it, and the other to the right (or at it). What does this imply about which boundaries you can remove together?
You can pair boundaries from the left and right. What happens to the remaining ones after pairing?
Let $$$V$$$ be the target value (the value at the special index $$$p_1$$$). Construct a binary array $$$b$$$ of size $$$n+2$$$ (0-indexed) where $$$b_i = 1$$$ if $$$a_i = V$$$, and $$$0$$$ otherwise. Pad the array with $$$b_0 = 1$$$ and $$$b_{n+1} = 1$$$.
Define a boundary as an index $$$j$$$ where $$$b_j \neq b_{j+1}$$$. Our goal is to eliminate all boundaries.
- Flipping a range $$$[l, r]$$$ toggles the boundaries at $$$l-1$$$ and $$$r$$$.
- The pivot constraint $$$l \le p_1 \le r$$$ means one toggled boundary must be $$$ \lt p_1$$$ and the other $$$\ge p_1$$$.
This naturally divides the boundaries into two independent regions:
- Region 1: Boundaries in $$$[0, p_1 - 1]$$$. Let the count be $$$x_1$$$.
- Region 2: Boundaries in $$$[p_1, n]$$$. Let the count be $$$x_2$$$.
Each valid operation removes at most one boundary from Region 1 and one from Region 2. We can pair boundaries across regions at a cost of 1 operation per pair. Once the smaller region is exhausted, the remaining boundaries in the larger region must be eliminated individually.
Thus, the minimum operations required are:
Time Complexity: $$$O(n)$$$
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
void solve() {
int n, k;
cin >> n >> k;
vector<int> arr(n+2);
for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) {
cin >> arr[i];
}
int pivot;
cin >> pivot;
arr[0] = arr[n+1] = arr[pivot];
int countL = 0, countR = 0;
for (int i = 0; i < pivot; i++) {
if (arr[i] != arr[i+1]) {
countL++;
}
}
for (int i = pivot; i < n+1; i++) {
if (arr[i] != arr[i+1]) {
countR++;
}
}
cout << max(countL, countR) << "\n";
}
int main() {
ios::sync_with_stdio(0);
cin.tie(0);
int t;
cin>>t;
while(t--) {
solve();
}
return 0;
}
2217C - Grid Covering
Idea: biswas
Problem Setting: biswas, SavageFighter001, shakr
Think of a one-dimensional array that wraps around itself. Check whether repeatedly jumping by a fixed step on such an array can ever let you visit every position or just a subset.
Treat each position as two states: $$$(i,j,\text{last move was Down})$$$ and $$$(i,j,\text{last move was Right})$$$. Follow the sequence and count how many such states appear before the path cycles. Compare this with the total possible states, i.e., $$$2 \cdot n \cdot m$$$.
To visit every row and column, we strictly require $$$\gcd(n, a) = 1$$$ and $$$\gcd(m, b) = 1$$$. Assume these hold.
A full cycle of moves (1 Down, 1 Right) yields a displacement of $$$(+a, +b)$$$. To return to $$$A_{1,1}$$$ with the exact same next move, we need $$$p$$$ cycles where:
The minimal such $$$p$$$ is $$$\text{lcm}(n, m)$$$. Thus, the path loops entirely after $$$2 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m)$$$ moves.
Because the maximum number of unique states Prakul can visit is $$$2 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m)$$$, we compare this with the total number of grid tiles.
- If $$$\gcd(n, m) \ge 3$$$:
The grid size is $$$n \cdot m = \gcd(n, m) \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m) \ge 3 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m)$$$.
This strictly exceeds the maximum visitable states ($$$2 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m)$$$), so covering the grid is impossible. - If $$$\gcd(n, m) = 1$$$:
Here, $$$2 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m) = 2 \cdot n \cdot m$$$.
The loop length is twice the number of grid tiles. By symmetry, every tile is visited exactly twice (once in each direction). Hence, the grid is fully covered. - If $$$\gcd(n, m) = 2$$$:
Here, $$$2 \cdot \text{lcm}(n, m) = n \cdot m$$$.
Prakul covers the grid if and only if he never visits a tile in both direction states. Let's assume a tile is visited in both states.
In State 1 (ready to move Right), after $$$k_1$$$ full cycles, his displacement is $$$k_1 \cdot a$$$ rows and $$$k_1 \cdot b$$$ columns.
In State 2 (ready to move Down), he has completed $$$k_2$$$ full cycles plus one extra Right move, making his displacement $$$k_2 \cdot a$$$ rows and $$$(k_2 + 1) \cdot b$$$ columns.
For these to be the exact same tile in the wrapping grid, their displacements must be equivalent:$$$ k_1 \cdot a \equiv k_2 \cdot a \pmod n \Rightarrow k_1 \equiv k_2 \pmod n $$$ $$$ k_1 \cdot b \equiv (k_2 + 1)\cdot b \pmod m \Rightarrow k_1 \equiv k_2 + 1 \pmod m $$$ Letting the difference in cycles be $$$x = k_1 - k_2$$$. Then:$$$ x \equiv 0 \pmod n, \quad x \equiv 1 \pmod m $$$ This implies:$$$ c \cdot n - d \cdot m = 1 $$$ By Bézout's identity, this is possible only if $$$\gcd(n, m)$$$ divides $$$1$$$. But $$$\gcd(n, m) = 2$$$, so this is impossible. Hence, no tile is visited in both states, and exactly $$$n \cdot m$$$ distinct tiles are visited.
Therefore, Prakul covers the grid if and only if $$$\gcd(n, a) = 1$$$, $$$\gcd(m, b) = 1$$$, and $$$\gcd(n, m) \le 2$$$.
#include <iostream>
#include <numeric>
int main()
{
int t = 1;
std::cin >> t;
while (t--) {
long long n, m, a, b;
std::cin >> n >> m >> a >> b;
bool possible = (
std::gcd(n, a) == 1 and
std::gcd(m, b) == 1 and
std::gcd(n, m) <= 2
);
std::cout << (possible ? "YES" : "NO") << std::endl;
}
return 0;
}
2217D - Flip the Bit (Hard Version)
Idea: Prakul_Agrawal
Problem Setting: h2rsh, Prakul_Agrawal
Similar to the easy version, think in terms of the boundaries where adjacent values differ. But now, the special indices divide the array into multiple regions.
You want to maximize how many times you can pair two boundaries from different regions (removing two in one operation). When is this always possible?
Let $$$S$$$ be the total number of boundaries and $$$X$$$ the maximum number in any region. When does one region have too many boundaries compared to the rest?
If one region dominates (has more than half the total boundaries), some boundaries are forced to be removed individually. Otherwise, all boundaries can be paired.
Similar to the easy version, construct a padded binary array $$$b$$$ where $$$b_i = 1$$$ if $$$a_i$$$ matches the target value, else $$$0$$$. A boundary exists at $$$j$$$ if $$$b_j \neq b_{j+1}$$$. Flipping $$$[l, r]$$$ toggles boundaries at $$$l-1$$$ and $$$r$$$.
The constraint that $$$[l, r]$$$ must contain at least one pivot $$$p_i$$$ means we can only pair two boundaries in a single operation if they are separated by at least one pivot.
The $$$k$$$ pivots divide the boundaries into $$$k + 1$$$ independent regions:
- Region 1: $$$[0, p_1 - 1]$$$
- Region $$$i$$$: $$$[p_{i-1}, p_i - 1]$$$ for $$$2 \le i \le k$$$
- Region $$$k+1$$$: $$$[p_k, n]$$$
Let $$$S$$$ be the total number of boundaries across all regions, and $$$X$$$ be the maximum number of boundaries in any single region.
We want to maximize pairing boundaries across different regions (which removes 2 boundaries for 1 operation). Removing a boundary stuck in its own region costs 1 operation per boundary.
- Case 1 ($$$X \le S/2$$$): No region dominates. We can optimally pair every boundary with one from a different region. Total operations: $$$S / 2$$$.
- Case 2 ($$$X \gt S/2$$$): One region has more boundaries than the rest combined. We pair all $$$S - X$$$ "outsider" boundaries with boundaries from the majority region. The remaining $$$X - (S - X) = 2X - S$$$ boundaries in the majority region must be resolved individually. Total operations: $$$(S - X) + (2X - S) = X$$$.
Combining these conditions gives the minimum number of operations:
Time complexity: $$$O(n)$$$
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
void solve() {
int n, k;
cin >> n >> k;
vector<int> arr(n+2);
for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) {
cin >> arr[i];
}
vector<int> pivots(k+2);
for (int i = 1; i <= k; i++) {
cin >> pivots[i];
}
arr[0] = arr[n+1] = arr[pivots[1]];
pivots[k+1] = n+1;
int S = 0, X = 0;
for (int i = 0; i <= k; i++) {
int count = 0;
for (int j = pivots[i]; j < pivots[i+1]; j++) {
if (arr[j] != arr[j+1]) {
count++;
}
}
S += count;
X = max(X, count);
}
cout << max(S / 2, X) << "\n";
}
int main() {
ios::sync_with_stdio(0);
cin.tie(0);
int t;
cin>>t;
while(t--) {
solve();
}
return 0;
}
2217E - Definitely Larger
Idea: shiven
Problem Setting: tanaygad, kevaljain
For each index $$$i$$$, the only indices that can ever contribute to $$$d_i$$$ are those with $$$j \gt i$$$ and $$$p_j \gt p_i$$$; so first check whether $$$d_i$$$ exceeds their count.
What happens if you process indices in decreasing order of $$$p_i$$$? Then one part of the domination condition is already automatically satisfied.
There are a few ways to approach this problem, but the most elegant solutions involve greedy construction. We will discuss two distinct but equally valid greedy strategies.
Method 1: Insertion by Decreasing $$$p_i$$$
This method determines the relative order of the elements in $$$q$$$ by processing the array based on the values of $$$p_i$$$.
Let's process the indices $$$i$$$ in decreasing order of their $$$p_i$$$ values (from $$$n$$$ down to $$$1$$$). We will maintain a list, ord, of the already processed indices. This list represents the elements sorted by their future $$$q$$$ values.
When we process the current index $$$i$$$, every index $$$j$$$ already in ord satisfies $$$p_j \gt p_i$$$. This perfectly handles the second condition of domination. Now we just need to satisfy the remaining conditions: $$$j \gt i$$$ and $$$q_j \gt q_i$$$.
Let $$$m$$$ be the number of indices $$$j$$$ currently in ord such that $$$j \gt i$$$. These are the only candidates that could possibly dominate $$$i$$$.
- If $$$d_i \gt m$$$, it is impossible to satisfy the condition, and we should output -1.
- Otherwise, to ensure exactly $$$d_i$$$ elements dominate $$$i$$$, we need exactly $$$d_i$$$ of these valid $$$j$$$ indices to have a larger $$$q$$$ value (meaning they are placed after $$$i$$$ in ord).
- Consequently, exactly $$$m - d_i$$$ of these valid $$$j$$$ indices must be placed before $$$i$$$ in ord.
We can simply iterate through ord, count until we have passed $$$m - d_i$$$ elements that satisfy $$$j \gt i$$$, and insert $$$i$$$ immediately after them. Once all $$$n$$$ indices are inserted into ord, their 1-based positions in the list become their actual $$$q_i$$$ values.
Method 2: Assigning $$$q_i$$$ from Large to Small
Alternatively, we can build $$$q$$$ directly by deciding which index receives the value $$$n$$$, then $$$n-1$$$, down to $$$1$$$.
Suppose we are trying to place the largest available value. The index $$$i$$$ that receives this value will have $$$q_i$$$ greater than all remaining unassigned elements. Therefore, nothing processed after $$$i$$$ can possibly dominate it. For $$$i$$$ to be a valid choice, its current $$$d_i$$$ must be exactly $$$0$$$.
If there are multiple indices with $$$d_i = 0$$$, which one should we pick? We should greedily pick the one with the smallest index $$$i$$$. Picking a smaller index avoids "blocking" elements to its left that might need to be dominated by it later.
Once we select this index $$$i$$$ and assign it the current maximum value, it becomes a valid dominator for any unassigned index $$$j$$$ that sits to its left ($$$j \lt i$$$) and has a smaller $$$p$$$ value ($$$p_j \lt p_i$$$). We simulate this by decrementing $$$d_j$$$ by $$$1$$$ for all such valid $$$j$$$. We repeat this process until all elements are assigned. If at any step no unassigned element has $$$d_i = 0$$$, the array is invalid, and we output -1.
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
int main() {
ios::sync_with_stdio(false);
cin.tie(nullptr);
int t;
cin >> t;
while (t--) {
int N;
cin >> N;
vector<int> P(N + 1), pos(N + 1);
for (int i = 1; i <= N; i++) {
cin >> P[i];
pos[P[i]] = i;
}
vector<int> D(N + 1);
for (int i = 1; i <= N; i++) cin >> D[i];
vector<int> ord(N);
bool ok = true;
for (int val = N; val >= 1 && ok; --val) {
int i = pos[val];
int m = 0;
for (int idx : ord) if (idx > i) ++m;
if (D[i] > m) {
ok = false;
break;
}
int needBefore = m - D[i];
int cnt = 0;
int insertPos = 0;
while (insertPos < (int)ord.size() && cnt < needBefore) {
if (ord[insertPos] > i) ++cnt;
++insertPos;
}
ord.insert(ord.begin() + insertPos, i);
}
if (!ok) {
cout << -1 << '\n';
continue;
}
vector<int> A(N + 1, 0);
for (int k = 0; k < N; k++) {
A[ord[k]] = k + 1;
}
for (int i = 1; i <= N; i++) {
cout << A[i] << (i == N ? '\n' : ' ');
}
}
return 0;
}
2217F - Interval Game
Idea: Prakul_Agrawal
Problem Setting: Prakul_Agrawal
Model the game as a Nim game. Each interval contributes two independent piles. The whole game becomes a 4-pile Nim game. Who wins depends only on the XOR (Nim-sum) of all piles.
Alice can control the XOR contribution of the first interval. What values of XOR can she achieve?
Let $$$X$$$ be Alice's XOR and $$$Z$$$ be the XOR from the random interval. Alice loses only when $$$X = Z$$$. So instead of maximizing wins directly, minimize how often $$$Z = X$$$ happens.
Fix a value of $$$X$$$. Count how many pairs $$$(a, b)$$$ (derived from the second interval) satisfy $$$a \oplus b = X$$$ under the constraint $$$a + b \le x_2 - 1$$$.
Use the identity:
This reduces the problem to counting integers with a bitmask constraint.
We can model this problem using the standard Game of Nim. Consider a single interval $$$[l, r]$$$ constrained within $$$[1, x]$$$.
- Decreasing $$$l$$$ (shifting left boundary) is equivalent to reducing a pile of size $$$l-1$$$.
- Increasing $$$r$$$ (shifting right boundary) is equivalent to reducing a pile of size $$$x-r$$$.
Thus, the game is played on 4 piles of stones with sizes:
The game ends when no moves are possible (all piles are size 0). Alice wins if the Nim-sum (XOR sum) of all pile sizes is non-zero.
Let $$$X$$$ be the XOR sum of the first interval's piles:
Let $$$Z$$$ be the XOR sum of the second interval's piles:
Alice wins if $$$X \oplus Z \neq 0$$$, which implies $$$Z \neq X$$$. Since the second interval is chosen uniformly at random, to maximize her winning probability, Alice must choose $$$l_1, r_1$$$ (and thus determine $$$X$$$) such that the number of outcomes where $$$Z = X$$$ is minimized.
Alice can produce any XOR value $$$X$$$ in the range $$$[0, x_1 - 1]$$$. A simple construction to achieve a specific XOR value $$$X$$$ is to set the first pile to 0 and the second to $$$X$$$.
- Set $$$l_1 = 1$$$ (Pile size $$$1-1=0$$$)
- Set $$$r_1 = x_1 - X$$$ (Pile size $$$x_1 - (x_1 - X) = X$$$)
This gives an interval $$$[1, x_1 - X]$$$, which is valid for any $$$X \lt x_1$$$.
We need to count how many valid intervals $$$[l_2, r_2]$$$ produce an XOR sum equal to Alice's chosen $$$X$$$. Let the pile sizes for the second interval be $$$a = l_2 - 1$$$ and $$$b = x_2 - r_2$$$. The constraints on the second interval are:
We are looking for the count of pairs $$$(a, b)$$$ such that $$$a \oplus b = X$$$ and their sum fits in the range. We use the fundamental relationship between sum and XOR:
Let $$$Y = a + b$$$. Substituting $$$a \oplus b = X$$$, we get:
Rearranging for the AND term:
This equation gives us the necessary conditions for a valid sum $$$Y$$$:
- $$$Y \ge X$$$ (since $$$a \ \& \ b \ge 0$$$)
- $$$Y - X$$$ must be divisible by 2
- Crucial Condition: The bits set in $$$(a \ \& \ b)$$$ cannot be set in $$$(a \oplus b)$$$. Mathematically: $$$((Y - X) / 2) \ \& \ X = 0$$$
If these conditions are met, how many pairs $$$(a, b)$$$ sum to $$$Y$$$ with XOR $$$X$$$? For every bit set in $$$X$$$, exactly one of $$$a$$$ or $$$b$$$ must have that bit set (2 choices: $$$1/0$$$ or $$$0/1$$$). The bits in the Bitwise-AND of $$$a$$$ and $$$b$$$ are fixed to 1 for both. Thus, for a valid $$$Y$$$, there are $$$2^{\text{popcount}(X)}$$$ ways to form the pairs.
We can simplify the condition by letting $$$K = (Y - X) / 2$$$. The condition $$$Y \le x_2 - 1$$$ becomes:
Let $$$Limit = \left\lfloor \frac{x_2 - 1 - X}{2} \right\rfloor$$$. The problem reduces to finding the count of integers $$$K$$$ such that:
- $$$0 \le K \le Limit$$$
- $$$K \ \& \ X = 0$$$
This specific counting problem (finding numbers less than a limit with a mask constraint) can be solved using simple bitwise logic (Greedy or Digit DP style) in $$$O(\log(\text{limit}))$$$.
Therefore:
- Iterate $$$X$$$ from $$$0$$$ to $$$x_1 - 1$$$
- Calculate $$$Limit = (x_2 - 1 - X) / 2$$$
- Count valid $$$K$$$'s in $$$[0, Limit]$$$ disjoint from $$$X$$$
- Total configurations for this $$$X$$$ is: $$$(\text{Count of } K) \times 2^{\text{popcount}(X)}$$$
- Pick the $$$X$$$ that minimizes this total
There are $$$x_1$$$ choices for $$$X$$$. The counting step takes $$$O(\log x_2)$$$. Total Complexity: $$$O(x_1 \log x_2)$$$.
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
long long count_valid_k(int limit, int mask) {
if (limit < 0) return 0;
long long count = 0;
for (int i = 20; i >= 0; i--) {
int bit_limit = (limit >> i) & 1;
int bit_mask = (mask >> i) & 1;
int lower_free_bits = 0;
for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) {
if (!((mask >> j) & 1)) {
lower_free_bits++;
}
}
if (bit_mask == 1) {
if (bit_limit == 1) {
count += (1LL << lower_free_bits);
return count;
}
} else {
if (bit_limit == 1) {
count += (1LL << lower_free_bits);
}
}
}
return count + 1;
}
void solve() {
int x1, x2;
cin >> x1 >> x2;
long long min_matching_outcomes = -1;
int best_X = -1;
for (int X = 0; X < x1; X++) {
int val = x2 - 1 - X;
long long current_matching_outcomes = 0;
if (val < 0) {
current_matching_outcomes = 0;
} else {
int limit = val / 2;
long long k_count = count_valid_k(limit, X);
current_matching_outcomes = k_count * (1LL << __builtin_popcount(X));
}
if (min_matching_outcomes == -1 || current_matching_outcomes < min_matching_outcomes) {
min_matching_outcomes = current_matching_outcomes;
best_X = X;
}
if (min_matching_outcomes == 0) break;
}
int l1 = 1;
int r1 = x1 - best_X;
cout << l1 << " " << r1 << "\n";
}
int main() {
int t;
cin >> t;
while (t--) {
solve();
}
return 0;
}
2217G - Down the Pivot
Idea: SilverTongue1729
Problem Setting: Faizal, SilverTongue1729
If we consider only flipping on root-to-$$$u$$$ paths, how many labellings are possible such that the cost is exactly $$$k$$$?
Answer: There will be exactly $$$\binom{n}{k}$$$ labellings for a tree of size $$$n$$$, regardless of the tree's shape.
A path through the root $$$r$$$ consists of a root-to-node path in the left subtree $$$L$$$, the root $$$r$$$ itself, and a root-to-node path in the right subtree $$$R$$$ (where either subtree path can be empty).
Because we can pair one needed flip in $$$L$$$ with one needed flip in $$$R$$$ into a single operation, clearing both subtrees requires exactly $$$m = \max(S(L), S(R))$$$ operations.
These $$$m$$$ operations will flip the root's label exactly $$$m$$$ times. If the root's final label is still $$$1$$$, we require exactly $$$1$$$ additional operation (flipping just the root itself, using empty paths for $$$L$$$ and $$$R$$$).
Thus, the total cost to clear the tree is:
For a fixed pair of subtrees (which fixes $$$m$$$), we have two choices for the root's initial label $$$a(r) \in {0, 1}$$$. Exactly one choice results in a total cost of $$$m$$$, and the other results in a cost of $$$m + 1$$$.
Consequently, the tree will have a cost of exactly $$$k$$$ if and only if $$$m \in {k, k-1}$$$. This is mathematically equivalent to the condition $$$m \le k$$$ minus the condition $$$m \le k - 2$$$.
For a fixed split of sizes $$$i$$$ and $$$j = n - 1 - i$$$, what is the number of valid $$$(L, R)$$$ pairs such that $$$\max(S(L), S(R)) \le t$$$? Calculate this, then iterate $$$i$$$ from $$$0$$$ to $$$n-1$$$.
The problem can be drastically simplified by transforming the tree labels into a different state. Let $$$a(v) \in {0, 1}$$$ be the initial label of node $$$v$$$. For any node $$$v$$$, define a new value:
(If a child does not exist, we treat its label as $$$0$$$).
Why is this transformation useful? Consider what happens to $$$x(v)$$$ when we perform an operation on a simple path from the root to some node $$$u$$$: * If $$$v$$$ is on the path but is not the endpoint $$$u$$$, both $$$a(v)$$$ and exactly one of its children's labels are flipped. Thus, $$$x(v)$$$ changes by $$$1 \oplus 1 = 0$$$. * If $$$v$$$ is the endpoint $$$u$$$, $$$a(v)$$$ is flipped, but neither of its children is on the path. Thus, $$$x(v)$$$ changes by $$$1 \oplus 0 = 1$$$. * If $$$v$$$ is not on the path, neither $$$a(v)$$$ nor its children are flipped. Thus, $$$x(v)$$$ changes by $$$0$$$.
An operation on a root-to-$$$u$$$ path toggles exactly $$$x(u)$$$ and leaves all other $$$x(v)$$$ values unchanged!
Furthermore, the mapping from $$$a(v)$$$ to $$$x(v)$$$ is a perfect bijection for any fixed tree structure (you can uniquely reconstruct $$$a(v)$$$ from $$$x(v)$$$ working bottom-up). Therefore, to zero-out a subtree $$$T$$$ using only paths starting from its root, we must flip exactly the paths ending at nodes where $$$x(v) = 1$$$. The minimum number of operations for a subtree $$$T$$$ is simply $$$S(T) = \sum_{v \in T} x(v)$$$. Since $$$x(v) \in {0, 1}$$$, the number of labelings of a tree of size $$$m$$$ that yield exactly $$$S(T) = s$$$ is $$$\binom{m}{s}$$$, independent of the tree's shape.
Evaluating the Whole Tree: An allowed operation is a path through the root $$$r$$$. This path consists of a root-to-node path in the left subtree $$$L$$$, the root $$$r$$$ itself, and a root-to-node path in the right subtree $$$R$$$ (where either subtree path can be empty).
Because we can pair one needed flip in $$$L$$$ with one needed flip in $$$R$$$ into a single operation, clearing both subtrees requires exactly $$$m = \max(S(L), S(R))$$$ operations.
These $$$m$$$ operations will flip the root's label exactly $$$m$$$ times. If the root's final label is still $$$1$$$, we require exactly $$$1$$$ additional operation (flipping just the root itself, using empty paths for $$$L$$$ and $$$R$$$). Thus, the total cost to clear the tree is:
For a fixed pair of subtrees (which fixes $$$m$$$), we have two choices for the root's initial label $$$a(r) \in {0, 1}$$$. Exactly one choice results in a total cost of $$$m$$$, and the other results in a cost of $$$m + 1$$$. Consequently, the tree will have a cost of exactly $$$k$$$ if and only if $$$m \in {k, k-1}$$$. This is mathematically equivalent to the condition $$$m \le k$$$ minus the condition $$$m \le k - 2$$$.
Counting the Trees: Let $$$C_t$$$ be the $$$t$$$-th Catalan number (the number of binary tree structures on $$$t$$$ nodes). Define the prefix sum of binomial coefficients as:
(with $$$BS(m, t) = 0$$$ for $$$t \lt 0$$$).
For a fixed split of sizes $$$i$$$ and $$$j = n - 1 - i$$$, the number of valid $$$(L, R)$$$ pairs such that $$$\max(S(L), S(R)) \le t$$$ is given by:
To find the number of trees with cost exactly $$$k$$$, we subtract the valid pairs for $$$t = k-2$$$ from the valid pairs for $$$t = k$$$:
Complexity and Optimization: We need to calculate $$$BS(m, t)$$$ for all $$$m$$$ up to $$$n$$$, for fixed values of $$$t \in {k, k-2}$$$. Recomputing the sum naively would be too slow. Instead, we can use the identity:
This allows us to compute $$$BS(m, k)$$$ and $$$BS(m, k-2)$$$ iteratively in $$$\mathcal{O}(1)$$$ transitions. The Catalan numbers can also be precomputed in linear time. Thus, the entire summation takes $$$\mathcal{O}(n)$$$ time per test case.
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
#include <ext/pb_ds/assoc_container.hpp>
using namespace std;
#define int long long
#define all(s) s.begin(), s.end()
#define sz(s) (int)s.size()
#define testcases \
cin >> tt; \
for (i = 1; i <= tt; i++)
#define fast \
ios_base::sync_with_stdio(0); \
cin.tie(NULL); \
cout.tie(NULL)
const int M = 1e9 + 7;
using i32 = int32_t;
template <const auto mod>
struct mint {
template<typename T = i32>
constexpr mint(T x = 0) : val(x % mod + (x < 0) * mod) {}
mint &operator+=(const mint &b) {
val += b.val;
val -= mod * (val >= mod);
return *this;
}
mint &operator-=(const mint &b) {
val -= b.val;
val += mod * (val < 0);
return *this;
}
mint &operator*=(const mint &b) {
val = 1ll * val * b.val % mod;
return *this;
}
mint &operator/=(const mint &b) { return *this *= b.inv(); }
mint inv() const {
i32 x = 1, y = 0, t;
for (i32 a = val, b = mod; b; swap(a, b), swap(x, y))
t = a / b, a -= t * b, x -= t * y;
return mint(x);
}
mint pow(int b) const {
mint a = *this, res(1);
for (; b; a *= a, b /= 2)
if (b & 1) res *= a;
return res;
}
friend mint operator+(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return mint(a) += b; }
friend mint operator-(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return mint(a) -= b; }
friend mint operator*(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return mint(a) *= b; }
friend mint operator/(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return mint(a) /= b; }
friend bool operator==(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return a.val == b.val; }
friend bool operator!=(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return a.val != b.val; }
friend bool operator<(const mint &a, const mint &b) { return a.val < b.val; }
friend ostream &operator<<(ostream &os, const mint &a) { return os << a.val; }
friend string to_string(const mint& a) { return to_string(a.val); }
i32 val;
};
using Mint = mint<M>;
typedef vector<Mint> vm;
typedef vector<vm> vvm;
#define PREC_TILL (int) 2'000'000
vector<Mint> factorials(PREC_TILL + 1);
vector<Mint> invFactorials(PREC_TILL + 1);
void prec() {
factorials[0] = 1;
for (int i = 1; i <= PREC_TILL; i++) factorials[i] = factorials[i - 1] * i;
invFactorials.back() = factorials.back().inv();
for (int i = PREC_TILL - 1; i >= 0; i--) {
invFactorials[i] = invFactorials[i + 1] * (i + 1);
}
}
Mint nCr(int n, int r) {
if (r < 0 or r > n) return 0;
return factorials[n] * invFactorials[n - r] * invFactorials[r];
}
Mint catalan(int n) {
if (n < 0) return Mint(0);
return factorials[2 * n] * invFactorials[n] * invFactorials[n + 1];
}
void solve(__attribute__((unused)) int tt) {
int n, k; cin >> n >> k;
Mint ans = 0;
for (auto y : {k - 1, k}) {
vm prefbinom(n + 1);
prefbinom[0] = 1;
for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) {
prefbinom[i] = 2 * prefbinom[i - 1] - nCr(i - 1, y);
}
for (int i = 0, j = n - 1; i <= n - 1; i++, j--) {
ans += 2 * catalan(i) * catalan(j) * nCr(i, y) * (prefbinom[j] - nCr(j, y));
}
for (int i = 0, j = n - 1; i <= n - 1; i++, j--) {
ans += catalan(i) * catalan(j) * nCr(i, y) * nCr(j, y);
}
}
cout << ans << "\n";
}
int32_t main() {
fast;
prec();
int tt = 1;
int i = 1;
testcases
solve(i);
}
2217H - Closer
Idea: shiven
Problem Setting: shiven
The key observation is that every chosen edge belongs to a matching, so every vertex can participate in at most one swap. If the two copies of some badge are initially at distance at least $$$4$$$, then even after moving both of them by one edge, they still cannot become adjacent. Any deal that can ever be sealed must come from a very small neighbourhood. This suggests a tree DP.
Root the tree at vertex $$$1$$$. For a node $$$u$$$, after all swaps, the badge finally sitting on $$$u$$$ can only have come from:
- $$$u$$$ itself,
- $$$\mathrm{par}(u)$$$,
- or one of the children of $$$u$$$.
For every such vertex $$$x$$$, let $$$\text{f}[u][x]$$$ be the maximum total profit contributed by sealed deals whose upper endpoint lies inside the subtree of $$$u$$$, under the condition that after the reshuffle, vertex $$$u$$$ contains the badge that originally stood on vertex $$$x$$$.
Now define $$$\text{best}[u] = \max_{x \ne \mathrm{par}(u)} \text{f}[u][x]$$$, and $$$\text{sum}[u] = \sum_{v \text{ child of } u} \text{best}[v].$$$
Here, $$$\text{sum}[u]$$$ is the value obtained if every child subtree behaves independently in its best possible way.
Let's compute some state $$$\text{f}[u][x]$$$. Let $$$c = a_x$$$, i.e. the badge that ends up at $$$u$$$.
First, we account for how this badge arrives at $$$u$$$. If $$$x=u$$$ or $$$x=\mathrm{par}(u)$$$, no child subtree is forced yet. If $$$x$$$ is a child $$$v$$$ of $$$u$$$, then edge $$$(u,v)$$$ must be chosen in the matching. In that case, subtree $$$v$$$ cannot simply contribute $$$\text{best}[v]$$$; instead, after the swap, vertex $$$v$$$ must receive the old badge of $$$u$$$, so we must use the state $$$\text{f}[v][u]$$$. So compared to the default value $$$\text{sum}[u]$$$, bringing the badge from a child $$$v$$$ changes the contribution of that child by $$$\text{f}[v][u] - \text{best}[v]$$$.
Now we ask whether the deal with badge $$$c$$$ can be sealed at $$$u$$$. Let $$$y$$$ be the other occurrence of badge $$$c$$$.
Since one copy of $$$c$$$ already ends at $$$u$$$, the only way to count this deal at $$$u$$$ is for the other copy to end at some child of $$$u$$$. Because each badge moves by at most one edge, only two cases are possible.
The first case is that $$$y$$$ is already a child $$$t$$$ of $$$u$$$. Then we can seal badge $$$c$$$ on edge $$$(u,t)$$$. Inside subtree $$$t$$$, vertex $$$t$$$ must keep its own badge, so we replace $$$\text{best}[t]$$$ by $$$\text{f}[t][t]$$$, and gain $$$w_c$$$. The extra profit from this is $$$\text{f}[t][t] - \text{best}[t] + w_c$$$.
The second case is that $$$y$$$ is a grandchild of $$$u$$$: say $$$y$$$ is a child of $$$t$$$ and $$$t$$$ is a child of $$$u$$$. Then we can move the badge from $$$y$$$ up to $$$t$$$, and seal badge $$$c$$$ on edge $$$(u,t)$$$. In this case we replace $$$\text{best}[t]$$$ by $$$\text{f}[t][y]$$$, so the extra profit is $$$\text{f}[t][y] - \text{best}[t] + w_c$$$.
There is one important restriction here: this second case is invalid if $$$t=x$$$, because then $$$t$$$ would need to participate in two swaps, which is impossible since the chosen edges must form a matching.
If neither of the above cases applies, then badge $$$c$$$ cannot form a sealed deal at $$$u$$$.
Therefore, each transition is very small:
- start with $$$\text{sum}[u]$$$,
- maybe modify one child because its badge is sent to $$$u$$$,
- maybe modify one child because it helps seal the deal of the badge now at $$$u$$$,
- take the second modification only if it is profitable.
So the transition is essentially: $$$\text{f}[u][x] = \text{sum}[u] + \text{arrival adjustment} + \max(0,\text{sealing bonus})$$$.
That's the whole idea. Once we fix which badge ends up at $$$u$$$, all child subtrees are independent except for at most two of them.
We process the tree bottom-up. After computing all states for $$$u$$$, we set $$$\text{best}[u] = \max_{x \ne \mathrm{par}(u)} \text{f}[u][x]$$$. The answer for the whole test case is simply $$$\text{best}[1]$$$.
The number of states is linear: for each node, we only keep states corresponding to the node itself, its parent, and its children. Each transition is $$$O(1)$$$. With the map-based implementation in the reference code, the total complexity is $$$O(N \log N)$$$ per test case. If you want it enough, you can make it $$$O(N)$$$ :)
Original code from _istil, cleaned up for reference.
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
using ll = long long;
constexpr int MAXN = 200005;
vector<int> g[MAXN];
int a[MAXN], w[MAXN], parent_[MAXN], pos[MAXN][2];
map<int, ll> dp[MAXN];
ll sum[MAXN], best[MAXN];
// Stores the parent of each node in the rooted tree.
void dfs_parent(int u, int p) {
parent_[u] = p;
for (int v : g[u]) {
if (v != p) {
dfs_parent(v, u);
}
}
}
// Computes dp[u][from]:
// the badge currently at u originally came from vertex 'from'.
void update_state(int u, int color, int from, ll delta) {
int other = pos[color][0] ^ pos[color][1] ^ from;
if (parent_[other] == u) {
dp[u][from] = sum[u] + delta + max(dp[other][other] - best[other] + w[color], 0LL);
} else if (parent_[parent_[other]] == u && parent_[other] != from) {
int mid = parent_[other];
dp[u][from] = sum[u] + delta + max(dp[mid][other] - best[mid] + w[color], 0LL);
} else {
dp[u][from] = sum[u] + delta;
}
}
void dfs_dp(int u) {
sum[u] = 0;
for (int v : g[u]) {
if (v == parent_[u]) continue;
dfs_dp(v);
sum[u] += best[v];
}
// Badge at u stays at u.
update_state(u, a[u], u, 0);
// Badge at parent(u) moves to u.
if (parent_[u] != 0) {
update_state(u, a[parent_[u]], parent_[u], 0);
}
// Badge at child v moves to u.
for (int v : g[u]) {
if (v == parent_[u]) continue;
update_state(u, a[v], v, dp[v][u] - best[v]);
}
best[u] = 0;
for (auto [from, value] : dp[u]) {
if (from != parent_[u]) {
best[u] = max(best[u], value);
}
}
}
void solve() {
int n;
cin >> n;
int N = 2 * n;
for (int i = 1; i <= n; ++i) {
cin >> w[i];
pos[i][0] = pos[i][1] = 0;
}
for (int i = 1; i <= N; ++i) {
cin >> a[i];
pos[a[i]][pos[a[i]][0] == 0 ? 0 : 1] = i;
}
for (int i = 1; i <= N; ++i) {
g[i].clear();
dp[i].clear();
}
for (int i = 1; i < N; ++i) {
int u, v;
cin >> u >> v;
g[u].push_back(v);
g[v].push_back(u);
}
dfs_parent(1, 0);
dfs_dp(1);
cout << best[1] << '\n';
}
int main() {
ios::sync_with_stdio(false);
cin.tie(nullptr);
int T;
cin >> T;
while (T--) {
solve();
}
return 0;
}









D was stupidly hard And C... no comments
luckily i skipped D xD
I created video editorial for D. Flip the Bit (Hard Version)
I also created video editorial for E. Definitely Larger
Problem F has 2 independent parts, one is Game Theory, and the second is Bit Manipulation / DP. I made a video editorial for the first part.
Problem G. Down the Pivot has 2 independent parts, one deals with combinatorics, and the other deals with flipping subtress/downward-paths on a tree. I made a video editorial on the latter.
I created video editorial for H. Closer.
F is a 4-piles nim game, interesting xD
The worst round possible T-T. I don't like this contest
In Problem A, “he chooses some $$$a_i \gt 0$$$ and decrements it by $1$”
Guess forces?
fire profile btw
For E, you can also solve by decreasing $$$i$$$. The idea is equivalent to solving by decreasing $$$p_i$$$
E can be solved using an algorithm looks like topo-sort. cuz we can model the problem to DAG probelm.
I also had this idea but I couldn't complete it. Can you share more details
i using a topo-sort and greedy method to match index with d, if an index has indeg equal to it’s value in array D i always use it and update the neighboor vertices, you can find in my solution:370177605
Nice, thank you. I didn't think of C[i] == D[i] condition, It's hard for me to see why the condition is necessary to process node i. Congrats on making masters btw
tks bro
I had the same idea .. just to create a DAG by assigning some edges in a greedy way.
but I got WA on test 3 verdict.
it's because in this way you can't ensure that it's a DAG graph, maybe it will have cycles.
bro i mean if u you connect candidates u dominated an index v only in p with an edge u->v or vice versa so the graph you created is DAG, the DAG you need when you create q is a subgraph of it, and i use a greedy topo sort to build it rely on vertices’ indegree. I dont know how you can build a graph that contain cycle, may i see your code?
370163646
Am iterating for all i .. and for each i I then iterate over all j from 0 to i-1 .. and check this :
if(p[i]>p[j]){
if(d[j]>0) // needs dominance q[j]should be smaller than q[i] because it does need to be dominated from i.
else // q[j] should be greater than q[i] because it doesn't need to be dominated from i.
}
omg ty sir i was stuck at the assigning and increasing part, i couldn't figure out how to increase the right way.
Calculate the ratings pls, it's 9 hours since the contest ended!
the indian gotta do smh before ig..
I think that $$$D$$$ and $$$E$$$ are nice, even tho I couldn't solve either, but they were fun to think about. Good job guys. Also, I think that $$$D$$$ and $$$E$$$ would definitely have like $$$\le 50\%$$$ of their solves if there were no cheaters. And $$$F$$$ having $$$120+$$$ trusted solves is crazy. cf contests would still be relatively clean if all these obvious cheaters were removed, hell probably $$$60-70$$$ people in the trusted top $$$100$$$ would get removed. If a few trusted active people could just ban whomever they wanted to, and they really cared about removing all the cheaters, they'd clean the standings up, no doubt. Also, take someone with $$$\le 1400$$$ rating (including unrated people) in the top $$$100$$$. The probability that they are a cheater is much greater than the probability that they are a legit participant, so people should just ban them and then they can appeal, and when the cheaters appeal, their responses will be chat GPT and obvious, so it'd be a lot less work.
Hola
my idol
I have been working on 1700 rated questions recently, but it seems like the last few Div2 contests have all been going against me.
same
make contest unrated plsss
you have an option to give it virtually later fyi
many guys solve c,but i did not...the problem like c i usually can`t solve
It is pretty easy if you get to know the basics of number theory, or you have to brainstorm heavily.
hey , can you suggest some from sources to study number theory, ...
I have learned it in my coursework. I'm not sure about CP resources, but CF Catalog and CP Algorithms are my go-to resources for all of my doubts.
The number of solves on D does not correspond with its difficulty at all
G could be solved quite easily using OGF method.
Can you explain the OGF method in detail?
We can see that the operation can be seperated into two parts,one in left son and one in right son.For sons,the operation has just an unchanged endpoint.The maximum of the costs of the two parts is the final answer(or the final answer decreased $$$1$$$ according to the value of root).So we first talk about the operation which starts from root.
Let we have $$$f_{n,k}$$$ become the number of trees that has $$$n$$$ nodes ans costs $$$k$$$ steps.Then we have transition $$$f_{n,k}=\sum_a\sum_b f_{a,b}(f_{n-1-a,k-b}+f_{n-1-a,k-b-1})$$$.Notice that the transition of the second dimension is convolution.We can see $$$f_{n,*}$$$ as a poly $$$F(n)$$$ of $$$O(n)$$$ nums.Then we have $$$F(n)=(x+1)\sum_a F_a(F_{n-1-a})$$$.And we can indicate that $$$F(n)=C_n(x+1)^n$$$ where $$$C_n$$$ is Catlan number.
So we can get any $$$f_{n,k}$$$ in $$$O(1)$$$ time.
And the final answer is $$$\sum_a g(a,m)g(n-a-1,m)-\sum_a g(a,m-2)g(n-a-1,m-2)$$$,where $$$g(n,k)$$$ equals to $$$\sum_{t=0}^k f_{n,t}$$$.And to calculate it we just need to maintain the presum of binoms.
unevenforces?
A easy, B easy, C damn hard, D damn hard and so on.
the hardness of B and C were uneven. like 900 rated problem then the next problem is 1500!
Problem C was very AI able. so cheaters used AI, thats why this many AC!
In problem C, how we justify that to return again to (1,1) we need complete cycles. It may be possible that to reach again (1,1) we perform k+1 row and k column operations or vice versa.
Yes, you may reach $$$A_{1,1}$$$ without completing a full cycle, i.e., in $$$k+1$$$ row and $$$k$$$ column operations. However, if you continue performing operations after this, you may still visit previously unvisited states.
Simply reaching $$$A_{1,1}$$$ again is not sufficient. Only when you return to it after completing an equal number of row and column operations will you start repeating the states you have already encountered.
How did so many authors make such a bad contest?
This contest gave me cyan name.
same
[delete]
B was good
I am thinking about giving up.
For those who solved problem C, how did you come up with the solution? Did you guess it based on some small observations, or did you do a formal proof before claiming the gcd(n, m) <= 2 fact? When I read the official solution, there are some tricky cases that make the observation not trivial to prove. So I'm curious, how did you arrive at the solution? Was it pure mathematical proof, or a lot of guessing?
Here is my thought process during the contest (which turned out to be false):
We know that we must have gcd(N, A) = 1 and gcd(M, B) = 1. I considered blocks of 2N moves. Suppose I start with a down move, and then I perform exactly 2N moves in total. We can observe that I make N right moves and I return to row 0: (0,0) → (0, N*B). If I then perform another 2N moves, I return to row 0 again and make another N right moves: (0,0) → (0, N*B) → (0, 2*N*B). So since the beginning, I've made 2N right moves, and so on. Thus, each time I complete a block of 2N moves, I end up on the same row but shifted to the right by N*B columns. Therefore, to be able to visit all cells on that row, we must have gcd(N*B, M) = 1. This can be generalized to all rows.
During the contest, I wasn't able to prove that my observation was wrong. With a simple example like N=2, M=2, A=1, B=1, it's obvious that it fails. I knew it was false because of the WA, but I couldn't see what in my reasoning made my solution incorrect.
Here I have another question, more general about problem solving: sometimes you have a wrong solution and it can be hard to tell exactly why it's wrong. When that happens, I tend to not move on to another approach until I find out why it's wrong. I tell myself, "Maybe this is the solution, I have to be sure," so I lose time on a hard path that might be misleading. Do you guys, when you find yourselves in this situation, just try other things, or do you continue like me even if it might not be the right way?
I guess it was something called AI
:(
I didn't do the gcd(n,m)<=2 instead I noticed that let's say that we have gcd(n,a)==1 & gcd(n,b)=1, now if you reach a cell where you have been before without completing the whole grid, that would mean that it is not possible, now to find the condition for it, let's say we can just go down, it will take me n steps to get to the initial cell, now if I do the alternating steps then if we get j*n*b mod m==0, where j is any whole number, so we get that after doing j*n amount of alternating steps, we reach the same point we started at, so if before reaching this we already covered the whole grid, then the answer is YES, otherwise NO.
In my thought process during the contest (which I described above), I had a similar idea: to check whether all cells in a row are visited, I looked at gcd(N*B, M)=1. I ended up with this reasoning, but it turned out to be wrong. How do you actually check whether all cells are visited, knowing that if j*N*B mod M == 0 you'll be stuck in a cycle?
I just found out the smallest j such that j*N*B mod M equals to zero, for that you can just use a bit of modular arithmetic to get it in a better form and then as you do that you will be able to deduce the expression, you will get something like j mod M * N*B modM modM =0 from here you will get smallest j= m/GCD(b*n ,m), and you can do the same for the other dimension.
How do you code it ?
You just get the smallest j by m/GCD then you just see if j*n*2 is smaller than n*m if yes that means you get to the same position before visiting all the other cells, this not possible else possible
Given that $$$\gcd(N, A) = 1$$$ and $$$\gcd(M, B) = 1$$$, the problem is equivalent to an instance with $$$A = B = 1$$$ by permuting rows and columns in the order that they are visited. Say you "mark" a square $$$x$$$ if you move down into square $$$x$$$. Then, $$$\gcd(N, M) = 1$$$ means that you mark every single square in row 0. However, you actually visit two squares for every marked square, and additionally these squares are adjacent. Therefore, you only need to mark every other square to fully cover the row. This motivates $$$\gcd(N, M) \leq 2$$$.
Wow, simplifying the problem to make it with A=B=1 is genius!I see it now. Here it works because when you return to row 0 you go N times to the right since the last time you were at row 0.
When you consider the case with gcd(N,M)=1 you explore all the squares in the row, but when you have gcd(N,M)=2 you explore all the 0,2,4,2i,... cells in row 0. Here, like you said, since the first square in each row you enter you will enter the right adjacent square, then you will also explore all the 1,3,5,...2i+1,... squares.
To prove it you need the following fact: Consider you are on a line, with squares from 0 to M-1. When you begin at 0 and add some X, you will be at k*X mod M (where k is a natural number). If you have gcd(X,M) = d, then if you add X to your position, you will visit all squares from 0 to all multiples of d. It's at the end a very interesting problem!
Did you notice this fact (or know it) during the contest or just guess it?
I’d say it came to mind right after $$$\gcd(N, A) = \gcd(M, B) = 1$$$, since this implies every consecutive N vertical moves is a permutation on the rows (same for M horizontal moves and columns)
Assuming that the gcd(n,a) = gcd(m,b) = 1.
You can easily show that after m steps to the right you will be back at column 1, and after n steps down you will reach column 1. The first time you get back to your starting square will be after you take lcm(n,m) steps down and lcm(n,m) steps to the right. This will happen after 2 * lcm(n,m) steps, (because the steps alternate, i.e. you take one step to the right every two steps)
So at most you will visit 2 * lcm(n,m) squares. For this to cover the whole grid, you need:
But since these two are equivalent anyways, you can just check that 2 * lcm(n,m) >= n * m and that should be enough
nice proof
My friend just noticed it while looking through the tests idk
Orz SilverTongue1729!!
why in F problem the answer need to multiply with $$$2^{popcount(X)}$$$?
Because all of those are options 111 000 or 110 001 or ......
why i cant inspect others code for this contest or is it for all problems?
The tutorial for C only proves that (0, 0) will be visited with the exact same next move after 2*lcm(n, m) moves, does it necessary means the same holds for all other tiles (it's the minimum number of moves)? Also, it assumes cell is reached after full cycles, but there might be different situations, return to cell might happen with last step being to right or down (2nd time repetition)?
For gcd=1 case, I'm not 100% convinced this is true: "By symmetry, every tile is visited exactly twice (once in each direction).", why is it like that (symmetry argument), perhaps some tiles are visited more often (3 times, not 2 times) than others?
Also for gcd=2 case, "In State 1 (ready to move Right)", "In State 2 (ready to move Down)" means the proof is for case when first move is Right, I suppose the proof for 1st move being Down is similar.
An interesting topo sort based approach for E greedily assigning values in reverse order to the lowest current index possible 370418252
problem E has a super simple solution. Go through the positions from right to left:
Naively this is $$$n^2 \log n$$$ but you can remove the log using
nth_element370481649
EDIT: The naive solution also gets AC lmao 370482111
Problem D explanation:
what can be maximum?
i. it depends on the number of points have in each region divided by the special indices Because, we can't pair using two points from the same region since it doesn't contain special index.
ii. suppose the points are divided as: p1 | p2+1, p3, p4+1, p5 | p6+1 | here, second region has 4 points and we have only two points outside this.
iii. In this types cases where a region may have > n/2 points, there will be some points left which can't be paired. those remaining points each will have to resolved individually by allocating a new point to them.
iv. here, the total landmarks as well as the remaining points must be even.
v. suppose, in the above scenario, remaining points are p4 and p5. we have to select a point k such that there is atleast one special index between (k, p4+1) and (k, p5). so pairing in such a way ultimately resolve the issue. And it's guaranteed that resolving in this way will be always possible.
vi. so, in this scenario, required operation is 4(max point count of any region):(p1,p2+1),(p3,p6+1),(k,p4+1),(k,p5)
Here is full code with comment: https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/2217/submission/370576348
Alternative proof for problem C that there's no such $$$x = k_1 - k_2$$$, that
Let's write down numbers $$$0, n, 2n, \ldots \pmod m$$$. They all have a remainder 0 modulo $$$n$$$.
We need to find such $$$k \cdot n \equiv 1 \pmod m$$$. Here, we can apply $$$\gcd$$$ rule, which says that if we have numbers $$$a$$$ and $$$b$$$, $$$a \bmod b$$$ is divisible by $$$\gcd(a, b)$$$. (If you wish I can prove it too).
But since $$$\gcd(n, m) = 2$$$, all numbers $$$0, n, 2n, \ldots \pmod m$$$ are divisible by 2, so there's no $$$1$$$ in that series. Thus, no such $$$x$$$ exist.
Why do we start from 0 in problem B's code?
Love E
can anyone simplify the condition for B to work, how does padding at the ends simplify the problem here. Thanks
What kind of problems should I solve to be able to easily solve problem like C?
2600 for G???? That doesn't make sense...
How did this many people solve C man something is definetly fishy