We know that if n is prime, then:
{a^(n-1)} mod n = 1 [Fermat primality test]
Can anyone explain its mathematical proof?
We know that if n is prime, then:
{a^(n-1)} mod n = 1 [Fermat primality test]
Can anyone explain its mathematical proof?
| № | Пользователь | Рейтинг |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Benq | 3792 |
| 2 | VivaciousAubergine | 3647 |
| 3 | Kevin114514 | 3603 |
| 4 | jiangly | 3583 |
| 5 | strapple | 3515 |
| 6 | tourist | 3470 |
| 7 | dXqwq | 3436 |
| 8 | Radewoosh | 3415 |
| 9 | Otomachi_Una | 3413 |
| 10 | Um_nik | 3376 |
| Страны | Города | Организации | Всё → |
| № | Пользователь | Вклад |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Qingyu | 158 |
| 2 | adamant | 152 |
| 3 | Um_nik | 146 |
| 4 | Dominater069 | 144 |
| 5 | errorgorn | 141 |
| 6 | cry | 139 |
| 7 | Proof_by_QED | 136 |
| 8 | YuukiS | 135 |
| 9 | chromate00 | 134 |
| 9 | TheScrasse | 134 |
| Название |
|---|



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proofs_of_Fermat%27s_little_theorem
Auto comment: topic has been updated by MRITuhin (previous revision, new revision, compare).