NeutralMilkHotel's blog

By NeutralMilkHotel, history, 4 years ago, In English

https://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/77846 Can anyone explain why in problem G we are having a cyclic shift as d where (d.n)%m=0? I seem to get a bit of the intuitive picture but a proper formal proof would be appreciated.

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4 years ago, # |
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Sometime ago I had same query and I tried doing like this: link. Do tell me if its helpful.