https://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/77846 Can anyone explain why in problem G we are having a cyclic shift as d where (d.n)%m=0? I seem to get a bit of the intuitive picture but a proper formal proof would be appreciated.
Problem G of Codeforces Round 644(Div 3)
https://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/77846 Can anyone explain why in problem G we are having a cyclic shift as d where (d.n)%m=0? I seem to get a bit of the intuitive picture but a proper formal proof would be appreciated.
| Rev. | Язык | Кто | Когда | Δ | Комментарий | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| en1 |
|
NeutralMilkHotel | 2020-06-14 20:36:29 | 261 | Initial revision (published) |