https://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/77846 Can anyone explain why in problem G we are having a cyclic shift as d where (d.n)%m=0? I seem to get a bit of the intuitive picture but a proper formal proof would be appreciated.
Problem G of Codeforces Round 644(Div 3)
https://mirror.codeforces.com/blog/entry/77846 Can anyone explain why in problem G we are having a cyclic shift as d where (d.n)%m=0? I seem to get a bit of the intuitive picture but a proper formal proof would be appreciated.
| Rev. | Lang. | By | When | Δ | Comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| en1 |
|
NeutralMilkHotel | 2020-06-14 20:36:29 | 261 | Initial revision (published) |
| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Benq | 3792 |
| 2 | VivaciousAubergine | 3647 |
| 3 | Kevin114514 | 3611 |
| 4 | jiangly | 3583 |
| 5 | strapple | 3515 |
| 6 | tourist | 3470 |
| 7 | Radewoosh | 3415 |
| 8 | Um_nik | 3376 |
| 9 | maroonrk | 3361 |
| 10 | XVIII | 3345 |
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Qingyu | 162 |
| 2 | adamant | 148 |
| 3 | Um_nik | 146 |
| 4 | Dominater069 | 143 |
| 5 | errorgorn | 141 |
| 6 | cry | 138 |
| 7 | Proof_by_QED | 136 |
| 8 | YuukiS | 135 |
| 9 | chromate00 | 134 |
| 10 | soullless | 133 |
