For any integer n and where k is power of 2,
n % k = n & (k-1)
Example
I wasn't able to proof this statement, how could it be proofed without taking number as example?
Thanks in Advance!
| № | Пользователь | Рейтинг |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Benq | 3792 |
| 2 | VivaciousAubergine | 3647 |
| 3 | Kevin114514 | 3611 |
| 4 | jiangly | 3583 |
| 5 | strapple | 3515 |
| 6 | tourist | 3470 |
| 7 | dXqwq | 3436 |
| 8 | Radewoosh | 3415 |
| 9 | Otomachi_Una | 3413 |
| 10 | Um_nik | 3376 |
| Страны | Города | Организации | Всё → |
| № | Пользователь | Вклад |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Qingyu | 161 |
| 2 | adamant | 150 |
| 3 | Um_nik | 146 |
| 4 | Dominater069 | 144 |
| 5 | errorgorn | 141 |
| 6 | cry | 139 |
| 7 | Proof_by_QED | 136 |
| 8 | YuukiS | 135 |
| 9 | chromate00 | 134 |
| 9 | TheScrasse | 134 |
What is proof for finding remainder(%) when n divide by k, if k is power of two.
For any integer n and where k is power of 2,
n % k = n & (k-1)
Example : Let n = 26 and k = 2 ^ 3 = 8 , so 26 % 8 = 2
bin(26) = 11010
bin(8-1) = 00111
26 & 7 = 00010 = 2, which is CORRECT
...
I wasn't able to proof this statement, how could it be proofed without taking number as example?
Thanks in Advance!
| Rev. | Язык | Кто | Когда | Δ | Комментарий | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| en2 |
|
Kaleab_Asfaw | 2020-07-27 13:49:49 | 235 | Tiny change: 'oofed with out taking' -> 'oofed without taking' | |
| en1 |
|
Kaleab_Asfaw | 2020-07-27 13:37:18 | 250 | Initial revision (published) |
| Название |
|---|


