Блог пользователя ninja_28

Автор ninja_28, история, 5 лет назад, По-английски

1498A - GCD Sum

Video Editorial

Author and Problemsetting: ninja_28
Editorialist: sigma_g

Hint
Hint 2
Hint 3
Solution
Corner cases
C++ solution
Python solution

1498B - Box Fitting

Video Editorial

Author and Editorialist: sigma_g
Problemsetting: ninja_28

Hint
Hint 2
Solution summary
Solution implementation
Another implementation
Proof of correctness - brief
Proof of correctness - elaborate
Alternate implementation with easier proof
Does this solution work when block widths are not a power of two?
C++ solution
Python solution
C++ solution - multiset
C++ solution for easier proof

1498C - Planar Reflections

Video Editorial

Author, Problemsetter and Editorialist: sigma_g

Hint 1
Solution idea
Solution details
Implementation details
Note
C++ solution
Python Iterative solution

1498D - Bananas in a Microwave

Video Editorial

Author: shash42
Problemsetting and Editorialist: sigma_g

Brute force solution
Optimizing the brute force: hint
Optimizing the brute force: hint 2
Optimizing the brute force: details
Optimized solution implementation
Common mistakes
C++ solution
Python solution

1498E - Two Houses

Author, Problemsetting and Editorialist: dixitgarg

Description
Hint1
Proof of unique topological sorting
Hint2
Proof
Hint3
C++ solution
Python solution

1498F - Christmas Game

Author: nikhil_c
Problemsetting and editorialist: sigma_g

How do we solve a standard Nim game on arrays?
How to solve tree nim game for one rooting if K = 1: classifying odd/even steps
How to solve tree nim game for one rooting if K = 1: how bad are even steps
Reducing tree nim game to linear array: the stair case nim
Extending to general K
Calculating the answer for all roots
C++ solution
Python solution
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Excellent problem set! Need more Div2 rounds like these.

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Thanks for the lightning-fast and detailed editorial!

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One of the best editorials I've ever seen if it's not the best...Congratulations to all the team behind this round !

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a SCC is a strongly connected component, but what is a compressed SCC?

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E can be solved in $$$O(n\log n)$$$ with ZERO queries.

Consider sorting by in degree. For the $$$i$$$th point, one can tell whether it is the last point of a SCC by comparing $$$i(i-1)/2$$$ with the sum of in degree of the first $$$i$$$ points.

So one can find all SCCs just by iterating through the degree array. Thus finding the answer.

Implementation

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for B why using map fails but using freq arr pass ? frq arr : 111405356

map: 111388954

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Can C be solved using iterative dp?

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    Obviously, 111382908 .

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      Thanks.

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      Can you Explain this please??

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        dp[x][y]: Number of particles that bounce in the x-th plane with y ages passed from the beginning. So, if (y & 1) then all those are bouncing to the left, and to the right otherwise. It is not difficult to notice that if(y & 1)

        $$$dp[i][j] = dp[i-1][j-1] + dp[i-1][j-2] + ... dp[i-1][0]$$$

        that leads to

        $$$dp[i][j] = dp[i-1][j-1] + dp[i][j-1]$$$

        the other case is analogous. Finally, I need to add dp[i][j] to ans for all i < n && j <= k, those are the cases when those particles don't bounce.

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          I've done it during contest using O(K) memory and it obviously runs in O(NK) time complexity.

          Implementation

          Indeed it is kind of messy, during the contest it took me 30 minutes to debug and find out why it doesn't work for inputs with N = 1 or K = 1. (It can probably be improved somehow, but for now I'll handle them as special cases).

          Basically what I'm doing here is keeping prefixes and suffixes, where:

          Prefix — number of generated items if we start at 1, 2 ... i-1, i, and shoot in the right direction.

          Suffix — number of generated items if we start at i, i + 1 ... n-1, n, and shoot in the left direction

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    Almost anything that can be solved using recursive dp can in principle be solved using iterative dp also.

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could you please help me?) this is my solution for problem C and i don't know what's wrong with it. thank you! 111401801

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The problems were really interesting . Great Work !

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Beautiful editorial. I just loved the way they are explained step by step.

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In E problem, why this submission passed and this submission failed. I added following condition before asking query in AC submission.

Spoiler

Why is swapping making difference?

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I guess this is an easier proof for Problem E not requiring discussion of things like SCC and top-sort:

So the solution is: if there exists pair $$$(A, B)$$$ such that $$$k_{A} \geq k_{B}$$$, and we can go from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$ (assumption), then we can go from $$$B$$$ to $$$A$$$. We have to prove this.

Case 1: if the edge is from $$$B$$$ to $$$A$$$ : since we can go from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$ (assumption), and from this edge we can go from $$$B$$$ to $$$A$$$, so yes.

Case 2: the edge is from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$. Now consider all other vertices $$$C$$$. We claim that there exists a $$$C$$$ such that edges $$$(B, C)$$$ and $$$(C, A)$$$ exist.

Proof: we can think of indegrees as score. Currently we have discovered edge $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$ so score is $$$0:1$$$. We want score of $$$A$$$ to be greater than that of $$$B$$$. Now if for each $$$C$$$, the only edge combination that favourably increases score of $$$A$$$ is $$$(B, C)$$$ and $$$(C, A)$$$. Hence proved.

Is there any mistake or lack of rigour in this proof?

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Wonderfull editorial with clear explanations

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why i can't hack after system testing?

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Nice Editorial it helps me so much for solving rest problems which i m not able to do... Thanks

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In problem E, can anyone please tell why did I receive wrong answer on test 2, I just implemented the same thing using multiset, LINK.

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I framed D in a slightly different way which might be more straightforward to you if you're so inclined.

Essentially, for each timestep, we want to solve a version of the coin-change DP problem where we have a finite number of coins all of the same value. We want to do this in O(m). If there were an unlimited number of the coin, this is just the coin-change DP problem, and you just iterate left-to-right, storing DP[i] as 1 if you can get there, 0 if you can't.

Since we only have a finite number of coins, we still iterate left-to-right, but instead of storing 1 or 0, we store in DP[i] the minimum number of coins used to reach that value.

To recap, iterate i from 0 to m. if DP[i] != -1 and DP[i] < y, then DP[f(i)] = DP[i] + 1. Where f(i) is applying the function (either addition or multiplication) once.

111392313

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    Hi,

    Can you please explain this line, DP[targ] = max(DP[j]-1, DP[targ]);

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      Oh yeah, sorry, that must be confusing.

      In my writeup I said to store in DP[i] the minimum number of coins we need to use to reach that value.

      In my code I actually store in DP[i] the maximum number of coins NOT used in order to reach that value. So if we call the value in my writeup k, then the value in my code is just y - k, and all the reachable DP[i] starts at y instead of 0.

      The reason I did it that is so that taking the max would automatically overwrite the existing DP[targ] if DP[targ] == -1, so I don't have to add the if DP[targ] == -1.

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Finally i reached pupil after 16 contests (including this):)

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C C can be done with $$$O(n)$$$ memory too!

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Really quick and well explained editorial

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can anyone tell whats wrong in my logic for part C

solve(n,k)=1 when n==0 or k==1

and

solve(n,k)=1+solve(0,k-1)+solve(1,k-1)+solve(2,k-1)............solve(n-1,k-1) when n>0&&k>1

my logic for solve(n,k) is as follows:

if present decay age is k and it passes through n planes then it will lead to new particles as follows

particle generated at plane 1 will now pass through no plane leading to increase in solution by solve(0,k-1)

particle generated at plane 2 will now pass through one plane leading to increase in solution by solve(1,k-1)

similarly particle generated at plane i will increase solution by solve(i-1,k-1).

so my formula comes out to be:

solve(n,k)=1+solve(0,k-1)+solve(1,k-1)+solve(2,k-1)............solve(n-1,k-1)

But my logic was giving wrong answer.

Can anyone tell whats wrong with the logic???

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Problems similar to F have appeared before. Staircase nim itself is a common concept, and Move the Coins is a problem with K=1 with updates. Here's a more in-depth tutorial about staircase nim and this problem. This idea generalizes really easily as nodes with depths which have different residues mod k are independent (this isn't really mentioned in the editorial even though it's a pretty important fact).

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Solution for problem C with only 2 dimensions:

The idea

My full submission.

Few lines of Code

UPD: Of course this can be optimized to get rid of the second dimension since we only need the information from states with $$$age$$$ and $$$age - 1$$$, this improves our space complexity to $$$O(n)$$$, code.

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what is complexcity of this code it should get tle

include <bits/stdc++.h>

using namespace std;

long long int gcd_sum(long long int num) { // returns gcd-sum long long int tmp = num, digitsum = 0;

while (tmp > 0) {
    digitsum += tmp % 10;
    tmp /= 10;
}

long long int gcd = __gcd(num, digitsum);
return gcd;

}

int main(void) { int t; cin >> t;

while (t--) {
    long long int n;
    cin >> n;
    if (gcd_sum(n) != 1) {
        cout << n << endl;
    } else if (gcd_sum(n + 1) != 1) {
        cout << n + 1 << endl;
    } else if (gcd_sum(n + 2) != 1) {
        cout << n + 2 << endl;
    }
}
return 0;

}

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E had 100 ACs in just the last 10 mins damn.

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Every editorial should be like this. Awesome job.

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B was good this time it required more thinking than just straight implementation

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deleted

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1498C - Planar Reflections can also be solved without using DP. Here is my solution 111412008 where i just traverse the given setup in ZigZag fashion.

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Solved problem 1498C - Planar Reflections using 2 states only. You don't need the 'direction' state or dimension if you observe the following.

Hitting the $$$i^{th}$$$ wall (/plane) in the opposite direction at any moment is equivalent to hitting $$$n-i+1^{th}$$$ wall in the forward direction at the same moment.

Thus the following short recursive DP function works perfectly, with calling the function with call(n, k)

ll call(int front, int k){
    // front = how many walls are in front.
    if(k == 1){
        return 1; // This particle itself, which is about to die
    }
    if(front == 0){
        return 1; // Again, this particle itself, which will go to infinity and beyond...
    }
    if(dp[front][k] != -1) return dp[front][k];
    ll ret = call(front - 1, k) + call(n - front, k - 1); // keep going forward + decay and turn back, aided with the observation mentioned above.
    if (ret >= modd) ret -= modd;
    return dp[front][k] = ret;
 
}

My submission 111384789

Also, looks like the spoilers get broken for comments (looks fine on the post). It would be nice if it gets fixed.

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Best editorial guys.. Keep up the good work

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On problem E I proved my solution on a different approach.

Lemma: Let A and B be nodes such that $$$k[a] \lt = k[b]$$$. Then, $$$B$$$ is reachable from $$$A$$$.

Proof:

Case 1: (If there is a directed edge from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$.)

There is nothing more to be done.

Case 2: (If there is not a directed edge from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$.)

Let $$$X_i$$$ be the set of nodes such that there exists a directed edge from every element of $$$X_i$$$ to $$$I$$$. Also, let $$$Y_i$$$ be the set of nodes such that there exists a directed edge from $$$I$$$ to every element of $$$Y_i$$$. Let's prove that there is at least one node that belongs to $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$X_b$$$. We have:

$$$|Y_a| + |X_b| = (n \; - \; 1 - \; k[a]) \; + \; k[b] = \; n \; - \; 1 + \; (k[b] \; - \; k[a]) \; \gt \; n - 2$$$

Using Dirichlet Principle, as $$$B$$$ does not belong to $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$A$$$ does not belong to $$$X_b$$$, we have that there are n — 2 nodes and the sum of elements of $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$X_b$$$ is bigger than n — 2. So, they have an element in common. Then, let $$$X$$$ be this element. There is an edge from $$$A$$$ to $$$X$$$ and from $$$X$$$ to $$$B$$$. We have a path from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$, finishing our proof.

I used this and for every pair of nodes, verified if there is a path between $$$B$$$ and $$$A$$$ (assuming that $$$k[a] \; \lt = \; k[b]$$$).

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    Nice proof! There's two things I would like to ask about:

    1. Why is the sum $$$|Y_a| + |X_b| \geq n - 2$$$ and not $$$\geq n - 1$$$? (given that $$$k[b] - k[a]$$$ could be at least $$$0$$$).

    2. On this line: "we have that there are n — 2 nodes and the sum of elements of $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$X_b$$$ is bigger than n — 2". Why can we say that it is bigger than $$$n - 2$$$? supposing the inequality you mentioned in 1. is $$$\geq n - 2$$$, would the statement be "bigger or equal to $$$n - 2$$$"? (or "bigger or equal to $$$n - 1$$$" if that's the correct right-hand side of the inequality). In such case, how can show that there'll be at least one element in common?

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      Thanks!

      1: Actually the correct result was supposed to be:

      $$$|Y_a| \; + \; |X_b| \; = \; n \; - \; 1 \; + \; (k[b] \; - \; k[a]) \; \gt = \; n \; - \; 1 \; \gt \; n \; - \; 2$$$

      Because the lemma stated that $$$k[a] \lt = k[b]$$$. So, the sum of $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$X_b$$$ sizes is strictly bigger than $$$n - 2$$$. Sorry for that, my mistake.

      2: I will try to explain it a bit better. Because of the assumption of the case (If there is not a directed edge from $$$A$$$ to $$$B$$$), we have that $$$B$$$ does not belong to $$$Y_a$$$ and $$$A$$$ also does not belong to $$$Y_a$$$. Then, there are at most $$$n - 2$$$ different elements in $$$Y_a$$$. Similarly, there are at most $$$n - 2$$$ different elements in $$$X_b$$$.

      Suppose they have no elements in common. Then, we must have at least $$$|Y_a| \; + \; |X_b|$$$ different nodes other than $$$A$$$ and $$$B$$$. But, the graph has at most $$$n - 2$$$ nodes other than $$$A$$$ and $$$B$$$. Then, we get, from the above equation:

      $$$n - 2 \lt |Y_a| + |X_b| \lt = n - 2$$$

      By contradiction, they must have at least a common element.

      I hope that helps!

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Awesome editorial and problem set. Really appreciate the quick and neat editorials and videos. It shows how much effort you people put into this round. Congrats and keep up the good work.

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Love this great problem set for Div2 and the detailed editorial!

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we need more editorials like this on the platform

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Can anyone please tell me why this solution 111375843 for problem B is wrong. I solved using 2 pointers. Thanks in advance :)

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Very nice editorial!

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My solution for C was correct, but my code crashed because I was exceeding stack limit on my pc. How can I increase stack size on windows? I'd seen a few blogs, nothing worked so far.

EDIT: It worked, if anyone needs help feel free to DM me.

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How to solve the problem C in Python using recursion?

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In problem C I made ll dp[1001][1001][2] then I wanted to write ll &ret = dp[i][j][d]; but accidentally I wrote ll &ret = dp[i][j][k]; it got Accepted but..

$$$d \lt = 1$$$

$$$k \lt = 1000$$$

so when I call ll &ret = dp[i][j][k]; it's like ll &ret = dp[1000][1000][1000]

when I put vector instead of the array I got RTE

Can anyone explain why ll &ret = dp[1000][1000][1000] didn't get RTE or MLE because it's large ($$$10^9$$$) and the array is ll dp[1001][1001][2] ?

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Thanks for the cool editorial .

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Great Editorial! I love how there's hints for the solutions so that you can actually figure it out by yourself. There should be more editorials like this

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Personally, I think C Problem can be solved in linear space in a very concise and "clean" way:

Solution Idea

Forgive me if that picture is simply too ugly :(

We give special treatment to $$$n=1$$$ or $$$k=1$$$ cases, and in other cases, we start by an array of length $$$n$$$, initialized 1,0,0,...,0 and calculate the partial sum of that array each step, after every calculation we reverse the array and do the exact same thing, finally terminate after $$$k$$$ rounds.

so the time complexity of this solution is $$$\Theta(nk)$$$, as you can see in my contest submissions :D

Actually, we can prove that there always exists a recursion in shape of $$$a_i=\sum_{\Delta=1}^{n}c_{\Delta}a_{i-\Delta}$$$, in the angle of view which $$$n$$$ is designated and $$$k$$$ varies as a sequence, which can be easily calculated in $$$\Theta(n^3\log k)$$$ time and potentially be calculated in $$$\Theta(n\log n\log k)$$$ time using polynomials and other (highly non-trivial) tricks.

For those who are Chinese, I think there's a website and several problems about this.

Well, me myself isn't very good at maths and especially polynomials, additionally I'm learning literacy class now, so I don't really understand this...... QwQ

ALSO, DON'T EVER TRY TO USE double TO CALCULATE INTEGER AND FRACTION CEILINGS WHEN long long IS SUFFICIENT ENOUGH.

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C can also solved by finding regularity.We can find how many copies will be produced by all the particles going in the same direction each time.And their sum is the answer.Sorry my English is so poor.

Code:111393762

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omg i think this is one of the best editorials on this platform!

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for Problem D, we only need one res array (res[i] == -1 means not visited), as in a 0-1 knapsack problem, instead of iterating from 0 to m, we iterate from m down to 0, therefore no need to keep two visited arrays.

check my code here: 111428128

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for problem B i wrote the same multiset approach, but it faield on Pretset 2. Exactly same approach of multiset..

multisetst; for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) { cin >> a[i]; st.insert(a[i]); // mp[a[i]]++; }

int leftover = k;
int ans = 1;
while (!st.empty()) {
    auto f = st.upper_bound(leftover);
    if (f == st.begin()) {
       leftover = k;
       ans++;
    }
    else {
       // if (f == st.end())
       f--;

       st.erase(st.find(*f));
       leftover -= *f;
       // db(*f, st.size(), leftover);
    }
}
cout << ans << endl;
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I really liked the contest specially problem E. I still haven’t read to tutorial but in my solution I didn’t use top-sort. First I proved for any two vertices in a tournament like a and b if the output degree of a is at least as big as the output degree of b, b is reachable from a. (The proof would be kinda long if I write but it isn’t so hard using induction and u need to know that each tournament graph has a king but it might have an easier solution. Still if u couldn’t and wanted the answer just comment it and I will explain) After this it’s easy. For every two vertices we will push back the difference between k of those in a vector and then sort it from big to small and we check the first which is possible. Here is my code if it will help( I used set though) 111401603

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Tutorial is just awesome, need more div2 problems and tutorials like this.

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In problem D , Making x long double and using x = x' /(1e5) with inbuilt ceil function is giving me Wrong Answer

However ,

Using x as long long and with the "incline ceil function" given in the editorial is getting accepted .

Can someone please help me out and explain why this is happening ?

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Actually during contest I did not read the question D properly (entirely my fault). I thought that for type 2 operation x can be between 1 and 10^5m instead of 10^5 to 10^5*m (x / 1e5 >= 1). Only reread at the end of contest (b4 7 minutes of contest end). Suppose x can be a fraction value as well for the type 2 operation. i.e. 1 <= x <= 10^5 * m. Is there a solution ?

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Just consider the case when it's not that the block sizes for problem 2 are not in powers of 2 then can anyone think of a way to implement the DP solution?

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Peace be upon you ! I really liked this contest and it's Editorial. Good job ! I'm waiting for more contests from you :)

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Can someone please explain the scenario in

$$$E$$$

when there is no solution ? We have proven that the topological sort of the SCC is unique, and that the indegree of vertices in those SCC increases as we go from left to right in the topological sort enumeration, but is it always possible to topological sort this graph ?

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Great problemsetting and Excellent tutorial! Thanks to this round :)

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From the editorial can anyone explain that in the ith timestamp why every unvisited node (upto i-1 th timestamp) is visited atmost once? Let's assume that the operation is t=1 and "no" is an unvisited node upto i-1 th timestamp.Then "no" can get visited from no-x,no-2*x,no-3*x.... (assuming all of them have been visited upto i-1th step). I am telling this according to the solution given in the editorial. Can anyone please tell me where I am wrong?

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    According to the solution in the editorial, no (an unvisited node) will only be visited from its closest already visited node.

    The iteration starting from no-3x will stop at no-2x (since it's an already visited node). The iteration starting from no-2x will stop at no-x (since it's an already visited node). So, only the iteration starting from no-x will actually reach no.

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I was stuck at problem D....

S;G fans only.
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Help needed in Problem C !
When a particle of decay age $$$k$$$ hits the $$$n^{th}$$$ plane, it produces a particle with decay age $$$k-1$$$ directed towards the $$${(n-1)}^{th}$$$ plane (if it exists), which on hitting the $$${(n-1)}^{th}$$$ plane produces a particle of decay age $$$k-2$$$ (if $$$k \gt 2$$$) directed towards the $$$n^{th}$$$ plane, this goes on until the decay age of the produced particles is greater than $$$1$$$.
How the solution in the editorial is able to count such particles with decay age $$$k-2$$$ & the consequently produced particles when a particle of decay age $$$k$$$ hits the $$$n^{th}$$$ plane?

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    So basically in dp transition step we are summing up the dp[curr+1][k][dir] and dp[curr-1][k-1][1-dir] here:

    if (curr < n)
      ans += solve(curr + 1, k, dir) — 1;
    
    ans %= mod;
    
    if (curr > 1)
       ans += solve(curr — 1, k — 1, 1 — dir) — 1;
    
    ans %= mod;
    

    These two dp states will take care of particles you are talking about because a dp state of n,k,dir indicates the total number of particles (at the end of the simulation) when one particle of decay age k hits the n-th plane in the direction d.

    P.S: If still not clear I would recommend to watch video editorial for this problem where we have clearly explained about how to think of dp states.

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Thanks for the wonderful solution!

Realllllly fast!

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I got WA on D because I used ceil() instead of dividing integers :(

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I think in D it is written to stop when we get first visited[ind]=1; But I think that is not required at all. We can do only 1 operation and stop. Maintain one num array as the minimum operation required to reach this point at this timestamp. Now suppose we want to do one operation if(num[ind]+1<=y) then only we can do this operation and update the next num and visited nxt as true.

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Can anybody explain problem F a bit more? I understood everything related to staircase NIM but now we have the problem of finding for each node the xorsum of values at nodes that have $$$d' = d/k$$$ odd. How can we do that an maintain the answers for all roots?

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    Do you find any resources to explain it. I have the same question with you. :<D

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    Hey, I have figured out this problem.

    Let's define f[u][i] is a state that root is 1, and the deep is i that value ralated to Hey, I have figured this problem.

    It is a type of root-changed(I am not sure about this word) DP.

    Whatever xD

    Let's define f[u][i] is a state that root is 1, and we just think about some nodes in the subtree of u and the distance with node u remainder by (2*K) equal to i. The value of f[u][i] is function of sg.

    dp[u][i] is a state that root is u, and we just think about some nodes distance with node u remainder by(2*k) equal to i. The value of dp[u][i] is function of sg.

    ——————— Firstly, we can calculate f[u][i] in this transfer equation as follows. The time complexity is O(n*k). Define u is the father of v

    f[u][i] ^= f[v][i-1];

    Obviously, dp[1] = f[1].

    Secondly, if we just think about the relationship between u(father of v) and v. We can find the value is about:

    dp[v][i] = f[v][i] ^ dp[u][i-1] ^ f[v][i-2];

    We also can calculate them by dfs. The time complexity is O(n*k).

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Some solutions which passed system cases are now getting WA on E on later added test cases. So isn't this matter of luck for people who submit wrong codes and got accepted? It happened to me twice in recent contests :( (Didn't code my logic, thinking it to get WA, but another guy submitted it and passed system tests and failing on later added test cases but still getting the points)

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Seems like there is a little typo in the C++ solution of D(in the ceiling function) which is causing compilation error.

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One of the best editorials I have seen off late. Great work!

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What are odd steps and even steps in problem F ?

UPD : Understood after reading this blog

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In planar reflections problem, can any one tell why ans was initialized to two in recursive c++ approach?

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Problem C can be much more simple. It can simply be solved using 2-state dp. dp(i, j) implies the total number of particles generated if a particle is needed to pass i sheets with current age j. As the opposite direction is symmetric the simple reccurence comes out to be dp(i,j) = dp(i — 1, j) + dp(n — i, j — 1); (n — i bcz if there are i sheets needed to be crossed rightwards there will be n — i sheets for the newly born particle in opp. direction to be crossed).

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I think we don't need binary search in Alternate implementation with easier proof of B(Box Fitting), It is sufficient to find least height required for every suffix of Ci and required height will be maximum of all possible least heights. here is the Solution.

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Unfortunately the Python solution to problem E has been uphacked: https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1498/submission/111571072

It TLEs with 125000 write/flush?

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Here's a sort of "meta-solution" I came up with for problem E. It's not really rigorous, but it is simple :)

First, remove all vertices that cannot be in the answer by repeatedly removing all vertices whose indegree is n-1 (and update n after that).

Now, consider a pair of vertices A and B, whose indegree difference is ID. Now, if you decide to query a pair of vertices C and D whose indegree difference is less than ID, there is a risk that A and B are the answer, since if there exists at least one graph that matches the input, and in this graph A and B are mutually reachable, you cannot ignore the possibility that this graph is in fact the graph that is given. So in a sense, we are forced to query the pair of vertices whose indegree difference is ID before we can query a pair of vertices whose indegree difference is less than ID. And, if we are forced to query it, and the answer is "Yes", we don't have any other option than to output this pair as the answer, since we don't have any other candidates.

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Can someone explain to me please why am I getting the wrong answer in D if I use this operation function instead of theirs?

auto operation = [&] (long long &curr, double mx) {
     if (t == 1) {
          curr = curr + (int)ceil(mx);
     } else {
         curr = ceil((double)curr * mx);
     }
};
where ceil is standard cpp function and mx = x[i]/1e5.

Any kind of help is highly appreciated.

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    There might be precision issues with a fractional value of the multiplier. The integral ceil function in the editorial does not mess around with fractions, and is thus guaranteed to always give the correct ceil.

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I have a problem in B here . I used multiset and did quite same but still got TLE . (the only difference in my approach is I used lower_bound instead of upper_bound) .. can anyone tell me why its happening like this? i am posting the link to my code here https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1498/submission/112199870 thanks in advanced !!

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    can anyone help me in figuiring out why its giving TLE? problem B i used multiset and lower_bound

    temp=0;
            out=1;
            auto it = s1.end();it--;
            temp+=(*it);
            s1.erase(it);
            while(s1.empty()==0)
            {                        
                if( (temp + *(s1.begin())) > W)
                {
                    temp=0;
                    out++;
                    it = s1.end();it--;
                    temp+=(*it);s1.erase(it);
                    continue;
                }
                it=s1.lower_bound(W-temp);
                if(it==s1.end())
                {
                    it--;
                    temp+=(*it);
                    s1.erase(it);
                    continue;
                }
                if((*it)<=W-temp)
                {
                    temp+=(*it);
                    s1.erase(it);
                }
            }
            cout<<out<<"\n";
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Author solution in Python for Task D does not meet Time Limit. :(

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Best Editorial I have ever seen! Keep it up!

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Applied multi-source BFS for D problem, not working :(. Wrong answer on testcase 12. Would appreciate if anyone points out where it is going wrong. 113828973

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Your code here...
#include <bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
typedef long long int lli;
typedef long double lld;
typedef priority_queue <lli , vector<lli>, greater<lli> > min_heap;
typedef priority_queue <lli> max_heap;
const lli M = 1e9 + 7;
#define FOR(i,l,u) for(lli i=l;i<=u;i++)
  
lli  count(lli i,lli j,lli d,lli n)
{
    if(i==n+1||i==0||j==1)
       return 1;
    else
    {
        if(d==1)
           return (count(i+1,j,d,n)+count(i-1,j-1,1-d,n))%M;
        else
           return (count(i-1,j,d,n)+count(i+1,j-1,1-d,n))%M;
    }
}
void solve()
{
    ios_base::sync_with_stdio(false);
    cin.tie(NULL);   
    lli t;cin>>t;
    while(t--)
    {
        lli n,k;cin>>n>>k;
        cout<<count(1,k,1,n)<<"\n";
    }
    
}
int main()
{
    solve();
}

why am i getting TLE?

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The editorial is excellently framed

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The solution given in the editorial is giving runtime error in my local machine for the tc -> (500 250). A possible reason for this could be the limit of stack size (I am not sure about this). I am using windows os with GCC compiler. Does anyone face the same issue? Or any advice on what should I do?

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In Div-2 problem C, My code is not giving output in codeblocks! But it got accepted .. Can anyone tell me how I can fix this? My code link

picture link, if not visible ....

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It's the best editorial I have even seen.

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Why am i getting wrong output? I have used the exact same logic as mentioned in editorial.

Spoiler
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amazing problemset and set of well structured editorials , just awesome work guys

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A much simpler solution for C with only prefix sums, no DP

327969731

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We can also approach 1498B by placing each biggest box(in descending order) first in the minimum available width. ~~~~~ void solve(){ ll n, w; cin>>n>>w; vector a(n); for(ll&i:a) cin >> i; multiset st; for(int =0;<n;++_) st.insert(w); sort(a.begin(), a.end(), greater()); for (int cr:a) { auto it = st.lower_bound(cr); int newval = *it — cr; st.erase(it); st.insert(newval); } cout << n — count(st.begin(), st.end(), w) << endl; } ~~~~~

We will initialize a multiset with n values of w and then fill each biggest box in the level with the minimum available width for the current box.

and our answer will be n — no of levels still with available width W.

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U can solve C without DP using simple prefix and suffix sums

https://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/1498/submission/346971895

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1498B Box filling I think this proof gives a different dimension

Let's consider 3 blocks, a,b, and c. The greedy method picks the greatest element that can fit in the space, let that greatest element be 'c'. c>max(a,b)

Now, to prove that our greedy method is incorrect, we need to prove that a+b > c [(ie) using a and b instead of c could fill more space/leave less space]

Let a = 2^x b = 2^y where (x, y) are integers.

Let m = max(x, y) n = min(x, y)

a + b = 2^m + 2^n = 2^m (1 + 2^{n — m})

### Case 1: x = y

If (x = y = m), then a = b = 2^m and a + b = 2^{m+1} The only power of two strictly greater than max(a, b) = 2^m is 2^{m+1}

But the inequality requires c < a + b = 2^{m+1}

This leaves no power of two strictly between (2^m) and (2^{m+1}). Therefore, no such c exists.

### Case 2: x ≠ y

Assume (n < m). Then 0 < 2^{n — m} < 1 and therefore_ 1 < 1 + 2^{n — m} < 2_ Multiplying this inequality by (2^m): 2^m < a + b < 2^{m+1} Any power of two strictly greater than (max(a, b) = 2^m) must be at least (2^{m+1}). But we also have: c < a + b < 2^{m+1} Thus, there is no power of two c with 2^m < c < a + b So again, no such c exists.

### Conclusion

In all possible cases, there is no power of two strictly between (max(a, b)) and (a + b). Therefore, no triple of powers of two ((a, b, c)) satisfies: a + b > c > max(a, b)