| # | User | Rating |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | tourist | 3985 |
| 2 | jiangly | 3741 |
| 3 | jqdai0815 | 3682 |
| 4 | Benq | 3529 |
| 5 | orzdevinwang | 3526 |
| 6 | ksun48 | 3489 |
| 7 | Radewoosh | 3483 |
| 8 | Kevin114514 | 3443 |
| 9 | ecnerwala | 3392 |
| 9 | Um_nik | 3392 |
| # | User | Contrib. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | cry | 167 |
| 2 | Um_nik | 163 |
| 3 | maomao90 | 162 |
| 3 | atcoder_official | 162 |
| 5 | adamant | 158 |
| 5 | -is-this-fft- | 158 |
| 7 | awoo | 156 |
| 8 | djm03178 | 155 |
| 9 | TheScrasse | 154 |
| 10 | Dominater069 | 153 |
http://mirror.codeforces.com/contest/758/problem/F
Guys can anybody explain why the upper bounds for x and y for the ratio d = x/y is n-1 th root of 'r'?
I know it myself but I want to know what other coders think about it.
So basically explain why x <= power(r, 1 / (n — 1)) and y <= power(r, 1 / (n — 1))?
Auto comment: topic has been updated by bhikkhu (previous revision, new revision, compare).
Assuming you're talking about the variables x and y defined in the editorial, for y we have:
b × yn - 1 ≤ r
The case for x is the same if you just replace y with x.